NSG 3280 EXAM 2 – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED
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1. A nurse is assessing a patient admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find during the initial
assessment?
A. Hypotension and polyuria
B. Periorbital edema and dark, cola-colored urine
C. Weight loss and warm, flushed skin
D. Decreased serum creatinine and elevated albumin
Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with glomerular inflammation leading to
hematuria (resulting in smoky or cola-colored urine), proteinuria, hypertension, and fluid
retention manifested as periorbital and peripheral edema.
2. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which of the following ECG changes is the nurse primarily monitoring for in this patient?
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. ST-segment depression
D. Prominent U waves
Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening complication of chronic kidney disease.
Electrocardiographic changes progress characteristically from tall, peaked T waves to
prolonged PR intervals, widened QRS complexes, and eventually ventricular fibrillation if
untreated.
3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient prescribed a new loop diuretic
for heart failure management. Which dietary modification should the nurse emphasize?
A. Restrict intake of green leafy vegetables containing vitamin K
B. Increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas and oranges
,C. Eliminate all sources of dietary sodium completely
D. Restrict fluid intake to less than 500 mL per day
Loop diuretics inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle,
leading to significant renal excretion of potassium and magnesium. Patients require dietary
counseling to prevent hypokalemia.
4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following arterial blood gas results aligns with
this diagnosis?
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 38 mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
B. pH 7.28, PaCO2 32 mmHg, HCO3 14 mEq/L
C. pH 7.35, PaCO2 48 mmHg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
D. pH 7.50, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
Diabetic ketoacidosis is characterized by metabolic acidosis resulting from the accumulation
of ketone bodies. Laboratory findings reflect a low pH, low serum bicarbonate (HCO3), and
compensatory respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2 via Kussmaul respirations).
5. A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Auscultation
of the lungs is most likely to reveal which of the following breath sounds?
A. Clear breath sounds throughout all lung fields
B. Inspiratory stridor over the upper trachea
C. Expiratory wheezing and diminished breath sounds
D. Coarse crackles that clear with coughing in the bases
Asthma involves bronchospasm, mucosal edema, and thick mucus production, resulting in
narrowed airways that produce high-pitched whistling sounds primarily on expiration, along
with diminished air movement in severe obstruction.
6. A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy following a deep vein thrombosis. Which
laboratory test is essential for monitoring the therapeutic effectiveness of this medication?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
, C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Warfarin acts as a vitamin K antagonist, inhibiting clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. The
Prothrombin Time (PT) and its standardized ratio, the INR, are used specifically to monitor
and adjust warfarin therapy.
7. A nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which
infection control precaution should the nurse initiate immediately?
A. Standard precautions only
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Bacterial meningitis is transmitted via large respiratory droplets. Droplet precautions
(including a surgical mask for staff and visitors entering the room) must be initiated
immediately and maintained until 24 hours of effective antibiotic therapy has been completed.
8. A nurse is assessing an older adult patient for early signs of delirium. Which of the
following behavioral changes is most indicative of delirium rather than dementia?
A. Insidious, slow onset of memory loss over several years
B. Acute onset of fluctuating confusion and altered level of consciousness
C. Stable cognitive deficits with intact immediate memory
D. Gradual loss of executive functioning without emotional lability
Delirium is characterized by an acute, sudden onset, fluctuating course of confusion, and
prominent disturbances in attention and level of consciousness, whereas dementia is
characterized by a slow, progressive, irreversible cognitive decline.
9. A patient is receiving intravenous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism. The
nurse notes the aPTT is 95 seconds. Based on standard protocols, what is the most
appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Increase the infusion rate by 2 mL/hour
B. Continue the infusion at the current rate and recheck in 6 hours
AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES |
GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE | EXAM PREP |
STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
1. A nurse is assessing a patient admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find during the initial
assessment?
A. Hypotension and polyuria
B. Periorbital edema and dark, cola-colored urine
C. Weight loss and warm, flushed skin
D. Decreased serum creatinine and elevated albumin
Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with glomerular inflammation leading to
hematuria (resulting in smoky or cola-colored urine), proteinuria, hypertension, and fluid
retention manifested as periorbital and peripheral edema.
2. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which of the following ECG changes is the nurse primarily monitoring for in this patient?
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. ST-segment depression
D. Prominent U waves
Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening complication of chronic kidney disease.
Electrocardiographic changes progress characteristically from tall, peaked T waves to
prolonged PR intervals, widened QRS complexes, and eventually ventricular fibrillation if
untreated.
3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient prescribed a new loop diuretic
for heart failure management. Which dietary modification should the nurse emphasize?
A. Restrict intake of green leafy vegetables containing vitamin K
B. Increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas and oranges
,C. Eliminate all sources of dietary sodium completely
D. Restrict fluid intake to less than 500 mL per day
Loop diuretics inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle,
leading to significant renal excretion of potassium and magnesium. Patients require dietary
counseling to prevent hypokalemia.
4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following arterial blood gas results aligns with
this diagnosis?
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 38 mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
B. pH 7.28, PaCO2 32 mmHg, HCO3 14 mEq/L
C. pH 7.35, PaCO2 48 mmHg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
D. pH 7.50, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
Diabetic ketoacidosis is characterized by metabolic acidosis resulting from the accumulation
of ketone bodies. Laboratory findings reflect a low pH, low serum bicarbonate (HCO3), and
compensatory respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2 via Kussmaul respirations).
5. A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Auscultation
of the lungs is most likely to reveal which of the following breath sounds?
A. Clear breath sounds throughout all lung fields
B. Inspiratory stridor over the upper trachea
C. Expiratory wheezing and diminished breath sounds
D. Coarse crackles that clear with coughing in the bases
Asthma involves bronchospasm, mucosal edema, and thick mucus production, resulting in
narrowed airways that produce high-pitched whistling sounds primarily on expiration, along
with diminished air movement in severe obstruction.
6. A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy following a deep vein thrombosis. Which
laboratory test is essential for monitoring the therapeutic effectiveness of this medication?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
, C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Warfarin acts as a vitamin K antagonist, inhibiting clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. The
Prothrombin Time (PT) and its standardized ratio, the INR, are used specifically to monitor
and adjust warfarin therapy.
7. A nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which
infection control precaution should the nurse initiate immediately?
A. Standard precautions only
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Bacterial meningitis is transmitted via large respiratory droplets. Droplet precautions
(including a surgical mask for staff and visitors entering the room) must be initiated
immediately and maintained until 24 hours of effective antibiotic therapy has been completed.
8. A nurse is assessing an older adult patient for early signs of delirium. Which of the
following behavioral changes is most indicative of delirium rather than dementia?
A. Insidious, slow onset of memory loss over several years
B. Acute onset of fluctuating confusion and altered level of consciousness
C. Stable cognitive deficits with intact immediate memory
D. Gradual loss of executive functioning without emotional lability
Delirium is characterized by an acute, sudden onset, fluctuating course of confusion, and
prominent disturbances in attention and level of consciousness, whereas dementia is
characterized by a slow, progressive, irreversible cognitive decline.
9. A patient is receiving intravenous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism. The
nurse notes the aPTT is 95 seconds. Based on standard protocols, what is the most
appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Increase the infusion rate by 2 mL/hour
B. Continue the infusion at the current rate and recheck in 6 hours
