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Advanced Pathophysiology Unit 1 Exam | 55 Q&A Study Guide

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Master advanced pathophysiology with 55 questions on cellular adaptation, inflammation, neoplasia, CV, respiratory, renal, neuro, and endocrine systems. advanced pathophysiology, unit 1 exam, cellular adaptation, inflammation immunity, neoplasia cancer biology, cardiovascular patho, respiratory system, renal system, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, GI hepatic, nursing patho, NP exam prep, graduate nursing

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Unit 1: Cellular and Tissue Biology
1. Which cellular adaptation occurs when smooth muscle cells in the uterus enlarge during
pregnancy?

A) Dysplasia

B) Hyperplasia

C) Hypertrophy

D) Metaplasia

ANSWERS>C

Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of individual cells. The uterine muscle cells
enlarge during pregnancy due to increased workload and hormonal stimulation. Hyperplasia is
an increase in cell number.



2. A biopsy report indicates "dysplasia." The nurse understands this means the cells are:

A) Increasing in number to replace lost cells.

B) Changing from one adult cell type to another.

C) Showing abnormal changes in size, shape, and organization.

D) Decreasing in size due to decreased oxygen supply.

ANSWERS>C

Rationale: Dysplasia refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of cells,
often considered a precancerous state. Metaplasia is the replacement of one cell type with
another.



3. Which type of necrosis is commonly associated with ischemic injury to the brain?

A) Coagulative

B) Liquefactive

C) Caseous

D) Fat

,ANSWERS>B

Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis occurs when tissue is digested by enzymes, turning into a liquid
mass. It is most commonly seen in the brain following ischemic injury (stroke) because the brain
lacks connective tissue.



4. Apoptosis is best described as:

A) Uncontrolled cell swelling and rupture.

B) Programmed cell death that does not trigger inflammation.

C) Cell death caused by severe hypoxia.

D) Abnormal cellular adaptation.

ANSWERS>B

Rationale: Apoptosis is an active, programmed process of cell death that removes unwanted or
damaged cells cleanly, without triggering an inflammatory response, unlike necrosis.



5. A patient is severely dehydrated. Fluid will shift from which compartment to which
compartment?

A) From intracellular to extracellular

B) From extracellular to intracellular

C) From intravascular to interstitial

D) From interstitial to intravascular

ANSWERS>A

Rationale: In dehydration, the extracellular fluid (ECF) becomes hypertonic relative to the
intracellular fluid (ICF). Water follows the concentration gradient, moving out of the cells (ICF)
into the ECF to balance the solute concentration.



Unit 2: Inflammation, Immunity, and Infection

6. Which of the following are cardinal signs of inflammation? (Select all that apply)

A) Fever

, B) Rubor

C) Tumor

D) Dolor

E) Pallor

ANSWERS>B, C, D

Rationale: The classic cardinal signs of inflammation are Rubor (redness), Tumor (swelling),
Calor (heat), Dolor (pain), and Functio Laesa (loss of function). Fever is a systemic response, not
a local cardinal sign.



7. During the vascular phase of acute inflammation, histamine causes:

A) Vasoconstriction and decreased vascular permeability.

B) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.

C) Vasodilation and decreased vascular permeability.

D) Vasoconstriction and increased vascular permeability.

ANSWERS>B

Rationale: Histamine released from mast cells causes vasodilation (leading to redness and heat)
and increased vascular permeability (allowing fluid to leak into tissues, causing swelling).



8. Which cell is the primary phagocyte in a bacterial infection?

A) Eosinophil

B) Basophil

C) Neutrophil

D) Lymphocyte

ANSWERS>C

Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to acute bacterial infections and are highly
phagocytic. Eosinophils are involved in parasitic infections and allergies.

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