BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology Exam V3 | Complete Exam
Study Guide with Actual Exam Questions and 100%
Correct Answers (New 2026/ 2027 Update) | Graded A+|
Nightingale College
Question 1
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib orally for symptom
management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose?
A. Review the client's hemoglobin results.
B. Notify the healthcare provider.
C. Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D. Record the client's vital signs.
Answer: B
Rationale: Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor that contains a sulfonamide moiety. Clients
with sulfa allergy may have cross-sensitivity. The healthcare provider should be notified
before administration.
Question 2
The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients when a client begins
exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma attack. The nurse administers a PRN
prescription for a Beta-2 receptor agonist agent. Which client response should the nurse
expect? (Select all that apply.)
A. Tachycardia
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Rapid resolution of wheezing
D. Improved pulse oximetry values
E. Reduced fever and airway inflammation
Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Beta-2 agonists cause bronchodilation (rapid resolution of wheezing),
improve oxygenation, and may cause tachycardia. They do not increase BP or reduce
fever/inflammation.
Question 3
Which change in data indicates to the nurse that the desired effect of the angiotensin II
receptor antagonist valsartan has been achieved?
A. Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1
B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dL
C. Pulse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/minute
pg. 1
,D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80 mmHg
Answer: D
Rationale: Valsartan is an ARB used to lower blood pressure. Reduced BP indicates
therapeutic effect.
Question 4
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high-dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old
client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's questions because
her ears are ringing. Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B. Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy.
C. Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D. Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam.
Answer: C
Rationale: Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) indicates salicylism (aspirin toxicity). The
healthcare provider should be notified immediately.
Question 5
The nitrate isosorbide dinitrate is prescribed for a client with angina. Which instruction
should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan?
A. Quit taking the medication if dizziness occurs.
B. Do not get up quickly. Always rise slowly.
C. Take the medication with food only.
D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrates cause orthostatic hypotension. Clients should rise slowly to
prevent dizziness and falls.
Question 6
Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an
opioid analgesic?
A. Antacids
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Antihypertensives
D. Oral antidiabetics
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines and opioids both cause CNS depression. Combined use
increases risk of respiratory depression and sedation.
Question 7
A client who has been taking levodopa PO TID to control the symptoms of Parkinson's
pg. 2
, disease has a new prescription for sustained-release levodopa/carbidopa PO BID. The
client took his levodopa at 0800. Which instruction should the nurse include in the
teaching plan for this client?
A. "Take the first dose of levodopa-carbidopa today, as soon as your prescription is
filled."
B. "Since you already took your levodopa, wait until tomorrow to take the levodopa-
carbidopa."
C. "Take both drugs for the first week, then switch to only the levodopa-carbidopa."
D. "You can begin taking the levodopa-carbidopa this evening, but do not take any more
levodopa."
Answer: D
Rationale: The evening dose replaces the last dose of regular levodopa. Do not double-
dose.
Question 8
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch to prevent motion
sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A. Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B. Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C. Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D. Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
Answer: A
Rationale: Scopolamine patch should be applied 4 hours before departure for
maximum effectiveness.
Question 9
The nurse is assessing a client prior to administering the prescribed dose of atenolol PO.
The client's blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, and the telemetry monitor shows sinus
bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a P-R interval of 0.24. Based on this
assessment, what intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Lower the head of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic vital sign changes.
B. Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client.
C. Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IVP.
D. Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.
Answer: B
Rationale: HR 58 is within acceptable range for a client on a beta-blocker. PR interval
0.24 is within normal limits (0.12-0.20 seconds is normal; 0.24 is first-degree AV block
which is often asymptomatic and not a contraindication).
Question 10
When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen, it is most
pg. 3
Study Guide with Actual Exam Questions and 100%
Correct Answers (New 2026/ 2027 Update) | Graded A+|
Nightingale College
Question 1
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib orally for symptom
management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose?
A. Review the client's hemoglobin results.
B. Notify the healthcare provider.
C. Inquire about the reaction to sulfa.
D. Record the client's vital signs.
Answer: B
Rationale: Celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor that contains a sulfonamide moiety. Clients
with sulfa allergy may have cross-sensitivity. The healthcare provider should be notified
before administration.
Question 2
The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients when a client begins
exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma attack. The nurse administers a PRN
prescription for a Beta-2 receptor agonist agent. Which client response should the nurse
expect? (Select all that apply.)
A. Tachycardia
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Rapid resolution of wheezing
D. Improved pulse oximetry values
E. Reduced fever and airway inflammation
Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Beta-2 agonists cause bronchodilation (rapid resolution of wheezing),
improve oxygenation, and may cause tachycardia. They do not increase BP or reduce
fever/inflammation.
Question 3
Which change in data indicates to the nurse that the desired effect of the angiotensin II
receptor antagonist valsartan has been achieved?
A. Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1
B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dL
C. Pulse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/minute
pg. 1
,D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80 mmHg
Answer: D
Rationale: Valsartan is an ARB used to lower blood pressure. Reduced BP indicates
therapeutic effect.
Question 4
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high-dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old
client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's questions because
her ears are ringing. Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B. Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy.
C. Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D. Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam.
Answer: C
Rationale: Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) indicates salicylism (aspirin toxicity). The
healthcare provider should be notified immediately.
Question 5
The nitrate isosorbide dinitrate is prescribed for a client with angina. Which instruction
should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan?
A. Quit taking the medication if dizziness occurs.
B. Do not get up quickly. Always rise slowly.
C. Take the medication with food only.
D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrates cause orthostatic hypotension. Clients should rise slowly to
prevent dizziness and falls.
Question 6
Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an
opioid analgesic?
A. Antacids
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Antihypertensives
D. Oral antidiabetics
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines and opioids both cause CNS depression. Combined use
increases risk of respiratory depression and sedation.
Question 7
A client who has been taking levodopa PO TID to control the symptoms of Parkinson's
pg. 2
, disease has a new prescription for sustained-release levodopa/carbidopa PO BID. The
client took his levodopa at 0800. Which instruction should the nurse include in the
teaching plan for this client?
A. "Take the first dose of levodopa-carbidopa today, as soon as your prescription is
filled."
B. "Since you already took your levodopa, wait until tomorrow to take the levodopa-
carbidopa."
C. "Take both drugs for the first week, then switch to only the levodopa-carbidopa."
D. "You can begin taking the levodopa-carbidopa this evening, but do not take any more
levodopa."
Answer: D
Rationale: The evening dose replaces the last dose of regular levodopa. Do not double-
dose.
Question 8
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch to prevent motion
sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A. Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B. Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C. Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D. Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
Answer: A
Rationale: Scopolamine patch should be applied 4 hours before departure for
maximum effectiveness.
Question 9
The nurse is assessing a client prior to administering the prescribed dose of atenolol PO.
The client's blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, and the telemetry monitor shows sinus
bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a P-R interval of 0.24. Based on this
assessment, what intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Lower the head of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic vital sign changes.
B. Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client.
C. Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IVP.
D. Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.
Answer: B
Rationale: HR 58 is within acceptable range for a client on a beta-blocker. PR interval
0.24 is within normal limits (0.12-0.20 seconds is normal; 0.24 is first-degree AV block
which is often asymptomatic and not a contraindication).
Question 10
When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen, it is most
pg. 3
