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NR 603 CEA Midterm Exam Questions & Answers 2026 | High-Yield Review | Graded A+

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Latest Update 2026/2027 exam prep featuring the NR 603 CEA Midterm Exam with verified questions and answers. This comprehensive study guide is designed to help you review common episodic and acute conditions, diagnostic reasoning, evidence-based treatment, pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic management, clinical decision-making, and other high-yield topics while preparing confidently for your midterm exam.

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1

,NR 603 CEA Midterm Exam Questions &

Answers 2026 | High-Yield Review |

Graded A+

1. A 62-year-old male with hypertension presents with

substernal chest pressure at rest for 25 minutes. ECG

shows ST depression in leads V3–V6. Troponin is elevated.

What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Aspirin 81 mg and discharge home

B) Exercise stress test within 24 hours

C) Admit for NSTEMI management with heparin and

antiplatelet therapy

D) Prescribe sublingual nitroglycerin and follow up in

clinic

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Elevated troponin + rest angina + ST

depression = NSTEMI. Requires admission, anticoagulation,

dual antiplatelet therapy, and possible invasive strategy.

2. Which medication has been proven to reduce mortality

2

,in chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

(HFrEF)?

A) Furosemide

B) Metolazone

C) Carvedilol

D) Amlodipine

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Beta-blockers (carvedilol, bisoprolol,

metoprolol succinate) reduce mortality in HFrEF by

decreasing sympathetic remodeling and sudden cardiac

death.

3. A 78-year-old with atrial fibrillation, CHA₂ DS₂ -

VASc score of 5, and HAS-BLED score of 2 is on warfarin.

INR today is 1.3. What is the best management?

A) Increase warfarin dose and recheck INR in 1 week

B) Start low-molecular-weight heparin bridging and

adjust warfarin

C) Switch to aspirin 81 mg daily

D) Hold warfarin for 3 days
3

, Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Subtherapeutic INR in high-risk AF requires

bridging with LMWH until INR therapeutic to prevent

thromboembolic stroke.

4. Which murmur is best heard at the left sternal border,

increases with Valsalva, and decreases with squatting?

A) Aortic stenosis

B) Mitral valve prolapse

C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

D) Ventricular septal defect

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: HCM murmur increases with decreased

preload (Valsalva, standing) and decreases with

increased preload (squatting).

5. A 55-year-old with palpitations has an ECG showing

irregularly irregular rhythm with no P waves. Ventricular

rate 150 bpm. Blood pressure is 110/70. Next step?

A) Immediate synchronized cardioversion
B) IV metoprolol
4

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