HESI EXIT EXAM ACTUAL
2026/2027 - COMPLETE
EXAM-STYLE QUESTIONS | 100%
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
190 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
HESI EXIT EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 - COMPLETE EXAM-STYLE QUESTIONS | 100% VERIFIED - PASS
GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 190 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam
content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that
explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 190 Questions
Foundations - Application - HESI EXIT Actual 2026/2027 Complete -style 100 PASS Guaranteed A Nursing
HESI EXIT Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Pre-licensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Finding Section B - Prescribed
Questions 1 to 48 Questions 49 to 96
Section C - Indicates Section D - Intervention
Questions 97 to 144 Questions 145 to 190
,Section A - Finding
Q1.
A patient with chronic heart failure and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 25% is
prescribed metoprolol succinate. Which finding in the patient's history would require
immediate consultation with the healthcare provider before administration?
A. Recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes B. Concurrent use of an ACE inhibitor
mellitus
C. Second-degree atrioventricular block D. History of asthma well-controlled with
without a pacemaker inhalers
Correct: C - Second-degree atrioventricular block without a pacemaker
Rationale:Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can worsen bradycardia and AV block; in
second-degree AV block without a pacemaker, it is contraindicated. While beta-blockers can
mask hypoglycemia and bronchospasm, these are relative cautions, not absolute
contraindications. ACE inhibitors are commonly used with beta-blockers in heart failure.
Q2.
In a patient with septic shock, which hemodynamic parameter indicates that the patient is
not responding to fluid resuscitation and may require vasopressor support?
A. Central venous pressure (CVP) 12 mm B. CVP 4 mm Hg, MAP 70 mm Hg, lactate 2
Hg, mean arterial pressure (MAP) 62 mm mmol/L
Hg, lactate 4 mmol/L
C. CVP 10 mm Hg, MAP 80 mm Hg, lactate D. CVP 8 mm Hg, MAP 75 mm Hg, cardiac
1.5 mmol/L index 3.5 L/min/m²
Correct: A - Central venous pressure (CVP) 12 mm Hg, mean arterial pressure (MAP) 62
mm Hg, lactate 4 mmol/L
Rationale:In septic shock, adequate fluid resuscitation is indicated by CVP "e8 mm Hg.
Persistent hypotension (MAP <65 mm Hg) with elevated lactate despite adequate CVP
suggests the need for vasopressors. Option A shows CVP 12 mm Hg (adequate fluid), but
MAP remains low and lactate is high, indicating vasoplegia requiring norepinephrine. The
other options show adequate perfusion.
Q3.
A patient is receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for a pulmonary embolism. The
current aPTT is 110 seconds (therapeutic range 60-80 seconds). Which action is most
appropriate?
Page 3
, Section A - Finding
A. Continue the infusion at the same rate B. Stop the infusion for 1 hour, then restart
and recheck aPTT in 6 hours at a lower rate
C. Administer protamine sulfate immediately D. Decrease the infusion rate by 10% and
recheck aPTT in 6 hours
Correct: D - Decrease the infusion rate by 10% and recheck aPTT in 6 hours
Rationale:An aPTT above therapeutic range indicates the heparin dose is too high. The
standard protocol is to decrease the infusion rate (often by 10-20%) and recheck aPTT.
Stopping the infusion may be considered if aPTT is critically high, but 110 seconds is not
extremely high. Protamine is for severe bleeding or reversal, not routine management.
Continuing at the same rate is unsafe.
Q4.
Which assessment finding is most indicative of a developing tension pneumothorax in a
mechanically ventilated patient?
A. Decreased breath sounds on the affected B. Increased peak airway pressures and
side, hyperresonance to percussion, and hypotension
tracheal deviation to the contralateral side
C. Sudden onset of subcutaneous D. Absent breath sounds and dullness to
emphysema and hypoxia percussion on the affected side
Correct: B - Increased peak airway pressures and hypotension
Rationale:In a mechanically ventilated patient, a tension pneumothorax presents with sudden
increase in peak airway pressures, hypotension (due to decreased venous return), and
hypoxia. While decreased breath sounds and tracheal deviation are classic, the earliest and
most reliable signs in ventilated patients are increased airway pressures and hemodynamic
instability. Subcutaneous emphysema may occur but is not as specific. Dullness suggests
pleural effusion or hemothorax, not pneumothorax.
Q5.
A nurse is caring for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed
phenelzine. Which dietary choice indicates a need for further teaching?
A. Grilled chicken with steamed rice and a B. Cheeseburger with french fries and a
glass of apple juice milkshake
C. Vegetable stir-fry with tofu and green tea D. Caesar salad with grilled shrimp and a
glass of red wine
Correct: D - Caesar salad with grilled shrimp and a glass of red wine
Page 4
2026/2027 - COMPLETE
EXAM-STYLE QUESTIONS | 100%
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
190 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
HESI EXIT EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 - COMPLETE EXAM-STYLE QUESTIONS | 100% VERIFIED - PASS
GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 190 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam
content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that
explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 190 Questions
Foundations - Application - HESI EXIT Actual 2026/2027 Complete -style 100 PASS Guaranteed A Nursing
HESI EXIT Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Pre-licensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Finding Section B - Prescribed
Questions 1 to 48 Questions 49 to 96
Section C - Indicates Section D - Intervention
Questions 97 to 144 Questions 145 to 190
,Section A - Finding
Q1.
A patient with chronic heart failure and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 25% is
prescribed metoprolol succinate. Which finding in the patient's history would require
immediate consultation with the healthcare provider before administration?
A. Recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes B. Concurrent use of an ACE inhibitor
mellitus
C. Second-degree atrioventricular block D. History of asthma well-controlled with
without a pacemaker inhalers
Correct: C - Second-degree atrioventricular block without a pacemaker
Rationale:Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can worsen bradycardia and AV block; in
second-degree AV block without a pacemaker, it is contraindicated. While beta-blockers can
mask hypoglycemia and bronchospasm, these are relative cautions, not absolute
contraindications. ACE inhibitors are commonly used with beta-blockers in heart failure.
Q2.
In a patient with septic shock, which hemodynamic parameter indicates that the patient is
not responding to fluid resuscitation and may require vasopressor support?
A. Central venous pressure (CVP) 12 mm B. CVP 4 mm Hg, MAP 70 mm Hg, lactate 2
Hg, mean arterial pressure (MAP) 62 mm mmol/L
Hg, lactate 4 mmol/L
C. CVP 10 mm Hg, MAP 80 mm Hg, lactate D. CVP 8 mm Hg, MAP 75 mm Hg, cardiac
1.5 mmol/L index 3.5 L/min/m²
Correct: A - Central venous pressure (CVP) 12 mm Hg, mean arterial pressure (MAP) 62
mm Hg, lactate 4 mmol/L
Rationale:In septic shock, adequate fluid resuscitation is indicated by CVP "e8 mm Hg.
Persistent hypotension (MAP <65 mm Hg) with elevated lactate despite adequate CVP
suggests the need for vasopressors. Option A shows CVP 12 mm Hg (adequate fluid), but
MAP remains low and lactate is high, indicating vasoplegia requiring norepinephrine. The
other options show adequate perfusion.
Q3.
A patient is receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for a pulmonary embolism. The
current aPTT is 110 seconds (therapeutic range 60-80 seconds). Which action is most
appropriate?
Page 3
, Section A - Finding
A. Continue the infusion at the same rate B. Stop the infusion for 1 hour, then restart
and recheck aPTT in 6 hours at a lower rate
C. Administer protamine sulfate immediately D. Decrease the infusion rate by 10% and
recheck aPTT in 6 hours
Correct: D - Decrease the infusion rate by 10% and recheck aPTT in 6 hours
Rationale:An aPTT above therapeutic range indicates the heparin dose is too high. The
standard protocol is to decrease the infusion rate (often by 10-20%) and recheck aPTT.
Stopping the infusion may be considered if aPTT is critically high, but 110 seconds is not
extremely high. Protamine is for severe bleeding or reversal, not routine management.
Continuing at the same rate is unsafe.
Q4.
Which assessment finding is most indicative of a developing tension pneumothorax in a
mechanically ventilated patient?
A. Decreased breath sounds on the affected B. Increased peak airway pressures and
side, hyperresonance to percussion, and hypotension
tracheal deviation to the contralateral side
C. Sudden onset of subcutaneous D. Absent breath sounds and dullness to
emphysema and hypoxia percussion on the affected side
Correct: B - Increased peak airway pressures and hypotension
Rationale:In a mechanically ventilated patient, a tension pneumothorax presents with sudden
increase in peak airway pressures, hypotension (due to decreased venous return), and
hypoxia. While decreased breath sounds and tracheal deviation are classic, the earliest and
most reliable signs in ventilated patients are increased airway pressures and hemodynamic
instability. Subcutaneous emphysema may occur but is not as specific. Dullness suggests
pleural effusion or hemothorax, not pneumothorax.
Q5.
A nurse is caring for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed
phenelzine. Which dietary choice indicates a need for further teaching?
A. Grilled chicken with steamed rice and a B. Cheeseburger with french fries and a
glass of apple juice milkshake
C. Vegetable stir-fry with tofu and green tea D. Caesar salad with grilled shrimp and a
glass of red wine
Correct: D - Caesar salad with grilled shrimp and a glass of red wine
Page 4
