NR 326 MENTAL HEALTH
NURSING FINAL EXAM ACTUAL
2026/2027 - 100% VERIFIED |
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
171 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NR 326 MENTAL HEALTH NURSING FINAL EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 - 100% VERIFIED | DETAILED
RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 171 carefully selected questions that reflect the
most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a
detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 171 Questions
Foundations - Application - NR 326 Mental Health Nursing Actual 2026/2027 100 Detailed Rationales PASS
Guaranteed A Mental Health Nursing Undergraduate YEAR 4 Senior
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Disorder Section B - Prescribed
Questions 1 to 43 Questions 44 to 86
Section C - Intervention Section D - Finding
Questions 87 to 129 Questions 130 to 171
,Section A - Disorder
Q1.
A patient with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on clozapine for 6 months presents
with a temperature of 38.9°C, tachycardia, and flu-like symptoms. The nurse notes an
absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 1,800/mm³. Which action should the nurse take
FIRST?
A. Hold the next dose of clozapine and B. Administer acetaminophen and
notify the provider immediately. encourage fluids for the fever.
C. Continue clozapine and monitor the ANC D. Discontinue clozapine permanently and
daily. start alternative antipsychotic.
Correct: A - Hold the next dose of clozapine and notify the provider immediately.
Rationale:An ANC below 2,000/mm³ in a patient on clozapine suggests neutropenia, a
potentially life-threatening adverse effect. The priority is to hold the medication and notify the
provider to prevent agranulocytosis. Acetaminophen and fluids address symptoms but do not
address the underlying risk. Permanent discontinuation may be required if agranulocytosis
develops, but the immediate action is to hold and report.
Q2.
A nurse is conducting a safety assessment for a patient with major depressive disorder
who recently started an SSRI. Which finding indicates the HIGHEST risk for suicide?
A. Expresses feelings of worthlessness and B. Reports a specific plan to overdose on
hopelessness. the newly prescribed medication.
C. States, 'I have a gun at home but would D. Shows improvement in mood and energy
never use it.' level over the past week.
Correct: B - Reports a specific plan to overdose on the newly prescribed medication.
Rationale:A specific, lethal plan with access to means indicates imminent risk. SSRIs can
increase energy before mood lifts, paradoxically elevating suicide risk; however, the presence
of a concrete plan is the most acute warning sign. Vague hopelessness and statements
denying intent are concerning but lower risk. Improved mood alone can be a warning sign but
is less specific than a plan.
Q3.
A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse reviews the patient's
current medications: ibuprofen, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. Which medication
interaction poses the GREATEST risk for lithium toxicity?
Page 3
, Section A - Disorder
A. Ibuprofen B. Lisinopril
C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. All three equally
Correct: C - Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale:Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide) decrease lithium clearance, leading to
increased serum levels and toxicity. NSAIDs (ibuprofen) and ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) also
increase lithium levels but to a lesser degree. While all three can interact, thiazides are the
most potent in raising lithium concentrations.
Q4.
A patient with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is undergoing prolonged exposure
therapy. During a session, the patient becomes highly distressed and states, 'I can't do
this anymore. It's too painful.' Which response by the nurse is MOST therapeutic?
A. Stop the exposure and switch to a less B. Acknowledge the difficulty and encourage
distressing topic. the patient to continue.
C. Remind the patient that the goal is to D. Ask the patient to rate their distress on a
reduce fear over time. scale of 0 to 10.
Correct: B - Acknowledge the difficulty and encourage the patient to continue.
Rationale:In prolonged exposure, it is normal for distress to spike; the therapeutic response
is to validate and encourage continuation to promote habituation. Stopping reinforces
avoidance. Reminding of goals is valid but does not address the immediate emotion. Rating
distress is part of the process but not a direct therapeutic response.
Q5.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which assessment
finding indicates progression to delirium tremens (DTs) and requires immediate
intervention?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg, heart rate B. Blood pressure 170/110 mm Hg, heart
92 bpm, tremors rate 130 bpm, confusion, hallucinations
C. Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, heart rate D. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate
58 bpm, lethargy 80 bpm, mild anxiety
Correct: B - Blood pressure 170/110 mm Hg, heart rate 130 bpm, confusion, hallucinations
Rationale:Delirium tremens is a medical emergency characterized by severe autonomic
hyperactivity (hypertension, tachycardia), altered mental status, and hallucinations. The other
options reflect milder withdrawal or unrelated conditions. Immediate intervention with
benzodiazepines and supportive care is critical.
Page 4
NURSING FINAL EXAM ACTUAL
2026/2027 - 100% VERIFIED |
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
171 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NR 326 MENTAL HEALTH NURSING FINAL EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 - 100% VERIFIED | DETAILED
RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 171 carefully selected questions that reflect the
most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a
detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 171 Questions
Foundations - Application - NR 326 Mental Health Nursing Actual 2026/2027 100 Detailed Rationales PASS
Guaranteed A Mental Health Nursing Undergraduate YEAR 4 Senior
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Disorder Section B - Prescribed
Questions 1 to 43 Questions 44 to 86
Section C - Intervention Section D - Finding
Questions 87 to 129 Questions 130 to 171
,Section A - Disorder
Q1.
A patient with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on clozapine for 6 months presents
with a temperature of 38.9°C, tachycardia, and flu-like symptoms. The nurse notes an
absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 1,800/mm³. Which action should the nurse take
FIRST?
A. Hold the next dose of clozapine and B. Administer acetaminophen and
notify the provider immediately. encourage fluids for the fever.
C. Continue clozapine and monitor the ANC D. Discontinue clozapine permanently and
daily. start alternative antipsychotic.
Correct: A - Hold the next dose of clozapine and notify the provider immediately.
Rationale:An ANC below 2,000/mm³ in a patient on clozapine suggests neutropenia, a
potentially life-threatening adverse effect. The priority is to hold the medication and notify the
provider to prevent agranulocytosis. Acetaminophen and fluids address symptoms but do not
address the underlying risk. Permanent discontinuation may be required if agranulocytosis
develops, but the immediate action is to hold and report.
Q2.
A nurse is conducting a safety assessment for a patient with major depressive disorder
who recently started an SSRI. Which finding indicates the HIGHEST risk for suicide?
A. Expresses feelings of worthlessness and B. Reports a specific plan to overdose on
hopelessness. the newly prescribed medication.
C. States, 'I have a gun at home but would D. Shows improvement in mood and energy
never use it.' level over the past week.
Correct: B - Reports a specific plan to overdose on the newly prescribed medication.
Rationale:A specific, lethal plan with access to means indicates imminent risk. SSRIs can
increase energy before mood lifts, paradoxically elevating suicide risk; however, the presence
of a concrete plan is the most acute warning sign. Vague hopelessness and statements
denying intent are concerning but lower risk. Improved mood alone can be a warning sign but
is less specific than a plan.
Q3.
A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse reviews the patient's
current medications: ibuprofen, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. Which medication
interaction poses the GREATEST risk for lithium toxicity?
Page 3
, Section A - Disorder
A. Ibuprofen B. Lisinopril
C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. All three equally
Correct: C - Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale:Thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide) decrease lithium clearance, leading to
increased serum levels and toxicity. NSAIDs (ibuprofen) and ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) also
increase lithium levels but to a lesser degree. While all three can interact, thiazides are the
most potent in raising lithium concentrations.
Q4.
A patient with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is undergoing prolonged exposure
therapy. During a session, the patient becomes highly distressed and states, 'I can't do
this anymore. It's too painful.' Which response by the nurse is MOST therapeutic?
A. Stop the exposure and switch to a less B. Acknowledge the difficulty and encourage
distressing topic. the patient to continue.
C. Remind the patient that the goal is to D. Ask the patient to rate their distress on a
reduce fear over time. scale of 0 to 10.
Correct: B - Acknowledge the difficulty and encourage the patient to continue.
Rationale:In prolonged exposure, it is normal for distress to spike; the therapeutic response
is to validate and encourage continuation to promote habituation. Stopping reinforces
avoidance. Reminding of goals is valid but does not address the immediate emotion. Rating
distress is part of the process but not a direct therapeutic response.
Q5.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which assessment
finding indicates progression to delirium tremens (DTs) and requires immediate
intervention?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg, heart rate B. Blood pressure 170/110 mm Hg, heart
92 bpm, tremors rate 130 bpm, confusion, hallucinations
C. Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, heart rate D. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate
58 bpm, lethargy 80 bpm, mild anxiety
Correct: B - Blood pressure 170/110 mm Hg, heart rate 130 bpm, confusion, hallucinations
Rationale:Delirium tremens is a medical emergency characterized by severe autonomic
hyperactivity (hypertension, tachycardia), altered mental status, and hallucinations. The other
options reflect milder withdrawal or unrelated conditions. Immediate intervention with
benzodiazepines and supportive care is critical.
Page 4
