NR508 NR 508 TEST BANK for
PHARMACOLOGY Completed with
100% correct answers
Course
NR 508 / NR508
1. Which phase of pharmacokinetics describes the movement of a drug from the site of
administration into the bloodstream?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
Correct Answer: C. Absorption
Rationale: Absorption is the process by which a drug enters the systemic circulation. It is
influenced by factors such as blood flow, route of administration, and drug formulation.
2. A patient with severe liver disease is at greatest risk for impairment of which
pharmacokinetic process?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Elimination through kidneys
Correct Answer: C. Metabolism
Rationale: Most medications undergo hepatic metabolism. Liver dysfunction decreases
metabolism and may increase drug toxicity.
3. Which organ is primarily responsible for excreting most medications?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Lungs
D. Pancreas
Correct Answer: B. Kidneys
,Rationale: The kidneys eliminate most drugs and metabolites through glomerular filtration and
tubular secretion.
4. The term "half-life" refers to:
A. Time required for complete elimination
B. Time needed for the drug concentration to decrease by 50%
C. Time to reach peak concentration
D. Duration of therapeutic effect
Correct Answer: B. Time needed for the drug concentration to decrease by 50%
Rationale: Drug half-life determines dosing intervals and the time needed to reach steady-state
concentrations.
5. A medication with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A. Less monitoring
B. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Higher loading doses only
D. Once-weekly dosing
Correct Answer: B. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring
Rationale: Drugs with narrow therapeutic indices have a small difference between therapeutic
and toxic doses.
6. Which receptor type is directly responsible for increasing heart rate when stimulated?
A. Alpha-1 receptors
B. Beta-1 receptors
C. Beta-2 receptors
D. Muscarinic receptors
Correct Answer: B. Beta-1 receptors
Rationale: Beta-1 receptor stimulation increases heart rate, contractility, and cardiac output.
7. Activation of beta-2 receptors primarily results in:
,A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Bronchodilation
C. Bradycardia
D. Vasoconstriction
Correct Answer: B. Bronchodilation
Rationale: Beta-2 receptors relax bronchial smooth muscle, improving airflow.
8. Which medication class is contraindicated during pregnancy because of fetal renal injury?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Beta blockers
D. Nitrates
Correct Answer: B. ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors may cause fetal kidney damage, oligohydramnios, and fetal death.
9. Warfarin therapy is monitored using which laboratory test?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR standardizes PT measurements and guides warfarin dosing.
10. Which anticoagulant requires routine monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT)?
A. Warfarin
B. Apixaban
C. Unfractionated heparin
D. Rivaroxaban
Correct Answer: C. Unfractionated heparin
, Rationale: Heparin dosing is adjusted using the aPTT.
11. Which adverse effect is most associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Bradycardia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B. Persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibition increases bradykinin levels, causing a dry cough.
12. Which electrolyte abnormality is common with spironolactone?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia only
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
13. Which diuretic is most appropriate for rapid treatment of pulmonary edema?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: C. Furosemide
Rationale: IV loop diuretics rapidly reduce pulmonary congestion.
14. Which medication is first-line for anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Prednisone
PHARMACOLOGY Completed with
100% correct answers
Course
NR 508 / NR508
1. Which phase of pharmacokinetics describes the movement of a drug from the site of
administration into the bloodstream?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
Correct Answer: C. Absorption
Rationale: Absorption is the process by which a drug enters the systemic circulation. It is
influenced by factors such as blood flow, route of administration, and drug formulation.
2. A patient with severe liver disease is at greatest risk for impairment of which
pharmacokinetic process?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Elimination through kidneys
Correct Answer: C. Metabolism
Rationale: Most medications undergo hepatic metabolism. Liver dysfunction decreases
metabolism and may increase drug toxicity.
3. Which organ is primarily responsible for excreting most medications?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Lungs
D. Pancreas
Correct Answer: B. Kidneys
,Rationale: The kidneys eliminate most drugs and metabolites through glomerular filtration and
tubular secretion.
4. The term "half-life" refers to:
A. Time required for complete elimination
B. Time needed for the drug concentration to decrease by 50%
C. Time to reach peak concentration
D. Duration of therapeutic effect
Correct Answer: B. Time needed for the drug concentration to decrease by 50%
Rationale: Drug half-life determines dosing intervals and the time needed to reach steady-state
concentrations.
5. A medication with a narrow therapeutic index requires:
A. Less monitoring
B. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Higher loading doses only
D. Once-weekly dosing
Correct Answer: B. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring
Rationale: Drugs with narrow therapeutic indices have a small difference between therapeutic
and toxic doses.
6. Which receptor type is directly responsible for increasing heart rate when stimulated?
A. Alpha-1 receptors
B. Beta-1 receptors
C. Beta-2 receptors
D. Muscarinic receptors
Correct Answer: B. Beta-1 receptors
Rationale: Beta-1 receptor stimulation increases heart rate, contractility, and cardiac output.
7. Activation of beta-2 receptors primarily results in:
,A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Bronchodilation
C. Bradycardia
D. Vasoconstriction
Correct Answer: B. Bronchodilation
Rationale: Beta-2 receptors relax bronchial smooth muscle, improving airflow.
8. Which medication class is contraindicated during pregnancy because of fetal renal injury?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Beta blockers
D. Nitrates
Correct Answer: B. ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors may cause fetal kidney damage, oligohydramnios, and fetal death.
9. Warfarin therapy is monitored using which laboratory test?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR standardizes PT measurements and guides warfarin dosing.
10. Which anticoagulant requires routine monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT)?
A. Warfarin
B. Apixaban
C. Unfractionated heparin
D. Rivaroxaban
Correct Answer: C. Unfractionated heparin
, Rationale: Heparin dosing is adjusted using the aPTT.
11. Which adverse effect is most associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Bradycardia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B. Persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibition increases bradykinin levels, causing a dry cough.
12. Which electrolyte abnormality is common with spironolactone?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia only
D. Hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
13. Which diuretic is most appropriate for rapid treatment of pulmonary edema?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: C. Furosemide
Rationale: IV loop diuretics rapidly reduce pulmonary congestion.
14. Which medication is first-line for anaphylaxis?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Prednisone
