Maryland CT Technologist Certification
Exam Practice Questions And Correct
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Rationale 2026 Q&A| Instant Download
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1. A CT technologist is preparing a patient for a contrast-enhanced
abdominal scan. Which laboratory value is most important to review
before intravenous iodinated contrast administration?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Platelet count
C. Serum creatinine
D. White blood cell count
Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most important value because it reflects
renal function and helps determine whether the patient can safely excrete
iodinated contrast media. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired
kidney function and increased risk of contrast-induced nephropathy.
2. Which imaging plane divides the body into right and left portions?
A. Coronal
B. Axial
,C. Sagittal
D. Oblique
Rationale: The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left sections. A
midsagittal plane divides the body equally, while parasagittal planes divide
it unequally.
3. During a CT scan, which component is primarily responsible for
converting transmitted x-ray photons into electrical signals?
A. Collimator
B. Detector array
C. Slip ring
D. Gantry motor
Rationale: The detector array converts x-ray photons into electrical signals
that are processed into digital image data. Modern CT scanners use highly
sensitive solid-state detectors for this purpose.
4. Which artifact commonly appears as dark streaks between dense
objects such as metal implants?
A. Motion artifact
B. Partial volume artifact
C. Beam hardening artifact
D. Aliasing artifact
Rationale: Beam hardening artifacts occur when lower-energy photons are
absorbed more readily, leaving higher-energy photons to penetrate dense
structures like metal. This creates streaking and dark bands on CT images.
5. What is the primary purpose of automatic exposure control (AEC) in CT
imaging?
A. To increase slice thickness
B. To reduce image noise only
,C. To optimize radiation dose
D. To enhance contrast resolution
Rationale: Automatic exposure control adjusts tube current according to
patient size and anatomy to optimize radiation dose while maintaining
diagnostic image quality.
6. Which contrast reaction is classified as mild?
A. Bronchospasm
B. Laryngeal edema
C. Limited urticaria
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Limited urticaria, such as a few hives or mild itching, is
considered a mild contrast reaction. Severe reactions include
bronchospasm, hypotension, and laryngeal edema.
7. The Hounsfield unit value for water is approximately:
A. -1000
B. -100
C. 0
D. +1000
Rationale: Water is assigned a Hounsfield unit value of 0 on the CT
attenuation scale. Air is approximately -1000 HU, while dense bone may
approach +1000 HU.
8. Which factor has the greatest effect on spatial resolution in CT?
A. Slice thickness
B. Patient positioning
C. Contrast concentration
D. Scan delay time
, Rationale: Slice thickness strongly affects spatial resolution because
thinner slices improve the ability to visualize small anatomical structures
and reduce partial volume averaging.
9. A patient develops severe shortness of breath immediately after
contrast injection. What should the CT technologist do first?
A. Continue the scan quickly
B. Notify housekeeping
C. Stop the injection and call for assistance
D. Ask the patient to sit up slowly
Rationale: The technologist should immediately stop the injection and
summon emergency medical assistance because respiratory distress may
indicate a life-threatening contrast reaction.
10. Which anatomical structure is best demonstrated on a high-
resolution CT of the lungs?
A. Hepatic veins
B. Bronchioles and lung parenchyma
C. Pancreatic duct
D. Pelvic organs
Rationale: High-resolution CT is specifically optimized to evaluate fine lung
anatomy, including bronchioles, interstitial tissue, and lung parenchyma.
11. Which term describes the time required for the x-ray tube to
complete one full revolution around the patient?
A. Pitch
B. Rotation time
C. Matrix size
D. Reconstruction interval
Exam Practice Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationale 2026 Q&A| Instant Download
1. A CT technologist is preparing a patient for a contrast-enhanced
abdominal scan. Which laboratory value is most important to review
before intravenous iodinated contrast administration?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Platelet count
C. Serum creatinine
D. White blood cell count
Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most important value because it reflects
renal function and helps determine whether the patient can safely excrete
iodinated contrast media. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired
kidney function and increased risk of contrast-induced nephropathy.
2. Which imaging plane divides the body into right and left portions?
A. Coronal
B. Axial
,C. Sagittal
D. Oblique
Rationale: The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left sections. A
midsagittal plane divides the body equally, while parasagittal planes divide
it unequally.
3. During a CT scan, which component is primarily responsible for
converting transmitted x-ray photons into electrical signals?
A. Collimator
B. Detector array
C. Slip ring
D. Gantry motor
Rationale: The detector array converts x-ray photons into electrical signals
that are processed into digital image data. Modern CT scanners use highly
sensitive solid-state detectors for this purpose.
4. Which artifact commonly appears as dark streaks between dense
objects such as metal implants?
A. Motion artifact
B. Partial volume artifact
C. Beam hardening artifact
D. Aliasing artifact
Rationale: Beam hardening artifacts occur when lower-energy photons are
absorbed more readily, leaving higher-energy photons to penetrate dense
structures like metal. This creates streaking and dark bands on CT images.
5. What is the primary purpose of automatic exposure control (AEC) in CT
imaging?
A. To increase slice thickness
B. To reduce image noise only
,C. To optimize radiation dose
D. To enhance contrast resolution
Rationale: Automatic exposure control adjusts tube current according to
patient size and anatomy to optimize radiation dose while maintaining
diagnostic image quality.
6. Which contrast reaction is classified as mild?
A. Bronchospasm
B. Laryngeal edema
C. Limited urticaria
D. Hypotension
Rationale: Limited urticaria, such as a few hives or mild itching, is
considered a mild contrast reaction. Severe reactions include
bronchospasm, hypotension, and laryngeal edema.
7. The Hounsfield unit value for water is approximately:
A. -1000
B. -100
C. 0
D. +1000
Rationale: Water is assigned a Hounsfield unit value of 0 on the CT
attenuation scale. Air is approximately -1000 HU, while dense bone may
approach +1000 HU.
8. Which factor has the greatest effect on spatial resolution in CT?
A. Slice thickness
B. Patient positioning
C. Contrast concentration
D. Scan delay time
, Rationale: Slice thickness strongly affects spatial resolution because
thinner slices improve the ability to visualize small anatomical structures
and reduce partial volume averaging.
9. A patient develops severe shortness of breath immediately after
contrast injection. What should the CT technologist do first?
A. Continue the scan quickly
B. Notify housekeeping
C. Stop the injection and call for assistance
D. Ask the patient to sit up slowly
Rationale: The technologist should immediately stop the injection and
summon emergency medical assistance because respiratory distress may
indicate a life-threatening contrast reaction.
10. Which anatomical structure is best demonstrated on a high-
resolution CT of the lungs?
A. Hepatic veins
B. Bronchioles and lung parenchyma
C. Pancreatic duct
D. Pelvic organs
Rationale: High-resolution CT is specifically optimized to evaluate fine lung
anatomy, including bronchioles, interstitial tissue, and lung parenchyma.
11. Which term describes the time required for the x-ray tube to
complete one full revolution around the patient?
A. Pitch
B. Rotation time
C. Matrix size
D. Reconstruction interval
