New York State EMT-Basic Written Examination verified with correct answers
with rationales 2026/2027 edition
1. An EMT arrives at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. What should the EMT
do first?
A. Begin treating the most injured patient
B. Ensure scene safety
C. Obtain a medical history
D. Check vital signs immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The first priority for an EMT is personal and scene safety. The EMT must ensure hazards are
controlled before entering the scene.
2. The primary purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE) is to:
A. Improve patient comfort
B. Prevent disease transmission
C. Reduce treatment time
D. Replace hand hygiene
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
PPE protects both the EMT and patient from exposure to infectious materials.
3. The first step in the patient assessment process is:
A. Taking a blood pressure
B. Performing a physical exam
C. Scene size-up
D. Obtaining SAMPLE history
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale:
Scene size-up identifies hazards, determines the mechanism of injury, and ensures safety.
4. During scene size-up, the EMT should assess:
A. Patient insurance information
B. Scene safety and number of patients
C. Patient medication list only
D. Hospital availability only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Scene size-up includes hazards, mechanism of injury, number of patients, and need for additional
resources.
5. The EMT's highest priority during patient care is:
A. Completing paperwork
B. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation
C. Transporting immediately without assessment
D. Obtaining payment information
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation problems must be addressed first.
6. A patient who is unconscious but breathing normally should be placed in:
A. Recovery position if no spinal injury is suspected
B. Standing position
C. Sitting position only
D. Prone position always
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The recovery position helps maintain airway protection in an unconscious breathing patient.
,7. The normal adult respiratory rate is approximately:
A. 2–5 breaths/min
B. 12–20 breaths/min
C. 30–50 breaths/min
D. 60 breaths/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Normal adult breathing is generally 12–20 breaths per minute.
8. A patient with severe airway obstruction who cannot speak or cough requires:
A. Abdominal thrusts (if appropriate)
B. Water to drink
C. Oxygen only
D. A blood pressure check first
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A conscious adult with severe airway obstruction requires immediate choking intervention.
9. The first treatment for a patient experiencing cardiac arrest is:
A. CPR and AED use when available
B. Oral fluids
C. Walking assistance
D. Pain medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
High-quality CPR and early defibrillation improve survival in cardiac arrest.
10. An AED analyzes the heart rhythm to determine whether:
, A. Medication is needed
B. A shock is advised
C. The patient needs food
D. The patient has a fracture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
An AED identifies shockable rhythms and advises the rescuer when defibrillation is appropriate.
11. The purpose of oxygen administration is to:
A. Increase oxygen available to body tissues
B. Replace all medications
C. Lower blood pressure
D. Stop bleeding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Supplemental oxygen improves oxygen delivery when patients have respiratory or circulatory
problems.
12. A patient with chest pain should be assessed for:
A. Possible cardiac emergency
B. Hair loss
C. Skin color only
D. Dietary preference
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Chest pain may indicate myocardial infarction or another life-threatening condition.
13. A patient experiencing a stroke may show:
A. Facial droop and weakness on one side
B. Increased appetite
with rationales 2026/2027 edition
1. An EMT arrives at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. What should the EMT
do first?
A. Begin treating the most injured patient
B. Ensure scene safety
C. Obtain a medical history
D. Check vital signs immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The first priority for an EMT is personal and scene safety. The EMT must ensure hazards are
controlled before entering the scene.
2. The primary purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE) is to:
A. Improve patient comfort
B. Prevent disease transmission
C. Reduce treatment time
D. Replace hand hygiene
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
PPE protects both the EMT and patient from exposure to infectious materials.
3. The first step in the patient assessment process is:
A. Taking a blood pressure
B. Performing a physical exam
C. Scene size-up
D. Obtaining SAMPLE history
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale:
Scene size-up identifies hazards, determines the mechanism of injury, and ensures safety.
4. During scene size-up, the EMT should assess:
A. Patient insurance information
B. Scene safety and number of patients
C. Patient medication list only
D. Hospital availability only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Scene size-up includes hazards, mechanism of injury, number of patients, and need for additional
resources.
5. The EMT's highest priority during patient care is:
A. Completing paperwork
B. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation
C. Transporting immediately without assessment
D. Obtaining payment information
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation problems must be addressed first.
6. A patient who is unconscious but breathing normally should be placed in:
A. Recovery position if no spinal injury is suspected
B. Standing position
C. Sitting position only
D. Prone position always
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The recovery position helps maintain airway protection in an unconscious breathing patient.
,7. The normal adult respiratory rate is approximately:
A. 2–5 breaths/min
B. 12–20 breaths/min
C. 30–50 breaths/min
D. 60 breaths/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Normal adult breathing is generally 12–20 breaths per minute.
8. A patient with severe airway obstruction who cannot speak or cough requires:
A. Abdominal thrusts (if appropriate)
B. Water to drink
C. Oxygen only
D. A blood pressure check first
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A conscious adult with severe airway obstruction requires immediate choking intervention.
9. The first treatment for a patient experiencing cardiac arrest is:
A. CPR and AED use when available
B. Oral fluids
C. Walking assistance
D. Pain medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
High-quality CPR and early defibrillation improve survival in cardiac arrest.
10. An AED analyzes the heart rhythm to determine whether:
, A. Medication is needed
B. A shock is advised
C. The patient needs food
D. The patient has a fracture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
An AED identifies shockable rhythms and advises the rescuer when defibrillation is appropriate.
11. The purpose of oxygen administration is to:
A. Increase oxygen available to body tissues
B. Replace all medications
C. Lower blood pressure
D. Stop bleeding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Supplemental oxygen improves oxygen delivery when patients have respiratory or circulatory
problems.
12. A patient with chest pain should be assessed for:
A. Possible cardiac emergency
B. Hair loss
C. Skin color only
D. Dietary preference
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Chest pain may indicate myocardial infarction or another life-threatening condition.
13. A patient experiencing a stroke may show:
A. Facial droop and weakness on one side
B. Increased appetite
