,ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2026 |
Actual study Questions and Answers + Expert
Rationales | 2026/27 Updated | 100% Pass Guarantee
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has a mild placental
abruption. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Bright red vaginal bleeding
B) Dark red vaginal bleeding
C) Painless vaginal bleeding
D) Profuse gushing of clear fluid
Correct Answer: B) Dark red vaginal bleeding
Expert Rationale: Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the
uterine wall. The bleeding is typically dark red due to blood that has been trapped behind the
placenta. Pain is usually present, distinguishing it from placenta previa which presents with
painless bright red bleeding.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing preterm
labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
A) Misoprostol
B) Betamethasone
C) Poractant alfa
D) Methylergonovine
Correct Answer: B) Betamethasone
Expert Rationale: Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid administered to stimulate fetal lung
maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. It is typically
given to women between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation who are at risk for preterm delivery.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation about warning signs of
complications that she should report to her provider. Which of the following findings should
the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Mild ankle edema
B) Vaginal bleeding
,C) Braxton Hicks contractions
D) Heartburn
Correct Answer: B) Vaginal bleeding
Expert Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy can indicate serious complications such as
placental abruption, placenta previa, or preterm labor. Clients should be instructed to report
any vaginal bleeding immediately to their provider.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and has
polyhydramnios. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Renal agenesis
B) Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
C) Neural tube defect
D) Cardiac anomaly
Correct Answer: B) Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
Expert Rationale: Polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) is often associated with fetal
gastrointestinal anomalies that impair the fetus's ability to swallow and absorb amniotic fluid,
such as esophageal atresia or duodenal atresia.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has preeclampsia and is to receive magnesium sulfate via
continuous IV infusion about expected adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Cold sensation
B) Feeling of warmth
C) Severe headache
D) Blurred vision
Correct Answer: B) Feeling of warmth
Expert Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a vasodilator and causes peripheral vasodilation,
leading to a feeling of warmth or flushing. This is an expected adverse effect and not a sign of
toxicity. Clients should be informed of this expected sensation.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia without
severe features. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
, A) Blood pressure 148/92 mm Hg
B) 480 mL urine output in 24 hr
C) 1+ proteinuria
D) Headache
Correct Answer: B) 480 mL urine output in 24 hr
Expert Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr or less than 500 mL in 24 hours indicates
oliguria and impaired renal function. This finding suggests worsening preeclampsia and requires
immediate intervention. Normal urine output should be at least 30 mL/hr.
7. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation about manifestations of
potential complications that she should report to her provider. Which of the following
information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Breast tenderness
B) Swelling of the face
C) Nausea in the morning
D) Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: B) Swelling of the face
Expert Rationale: Facial swelling (edema) can be a sign of preeclampsia and should be reported
immediately. Breast tenderness, nausea, and urinary frequency are common discomforts of
early pregnancy.
8. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. The
nurse notes that the client is rubella non-immune, positive for group A beta-hemolytic
streptococci, and has a blood type O negative. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take?
A) Administer Rh immunoglobulin at 28 weeks
B) Administer rubella vaccine immediately
C) Instruct the client to obtain a rubella immunization after delivery
D) Begin antibiotic therapy for GBS after delivery
Correct Answer: C) Instruct the client to obtain a rubella immunization after delivery
Expert Rationale: Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during
pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection. The client should receive the vaccine in
the immediate postpartum period before discharge.
Actual study Questions and Answers + Expert
Rationales | 2026/27 Updated | 100% Pass Guarantee
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has a mild placental
abruption. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Bright red vaginal bleeding
B) Dark red vaginal bleeding
C) Painless vaginal bleeding
D) Profuse gushing of clear fluid
Correct Answer: B) Dark red vaginal bleeding
Expert Rationale: Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the
uterine wall. The bleeding is typically dark red due to blood that has been trapped behind the
placenta. Pain is usually present, distinguishing it from placenta previa which presents with
painless bright red bleeding.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing preterm
labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
A) Misoprostol
B) Betamethasone
C) Poractant alfa
D) Methylergonovine
Correct Answer: B) Betamethasone
Expert Rationale: Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid administered to stimulate fetal lung
maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. It is typically
given to women between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation who are at risk for preterm delivery.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation about warning signs of
complications that she should report to her provider. Which of the following findings should
the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Mild ankle edema
B) Vaginal bleeding
,C) Braxton Hicks contractions
D) Heartburn
Correct Answer: B) Vaginal bleeding
Expert Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy can indicate serious complications such as
placental abruption, placenta previa, or preterm labor. Clients should be instructed to report
any vaginal bleeding immediately to their provider.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and has
polyhydramnios. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Renal agenesis
B) Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
C) Neural tube defect
D) Cardiac anomaly
Correct Answer: B) Fetal gastrointestinal anomaly
Expert Rationale: Polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) is often associated with fetal
gastrointestinal anomalies that impair the fetus's ability to swallow and absorb amniotic fluid,
such as esophageal atresia or duodenal atresia.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has preeclampsia and is to receive magnesium sulfate via
continuous IV infusion about expected adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Cold sensation
B) Feeling of warmth
C) Severe headache
D) Blurred vision
Correct Answer: B) Feeling of warmth
Expert Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a vasodilator and causes peripheral vasodilation,
leading to a feeling of warmth or flushing. This is an expected adverse effect and not a sign of
toxicity. Clients should be informed of this expected sensation.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia without
severe features. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
, A) Blood pressure 148/92 mm Hg
B) 480 mL urine output in 24 hr
C) 1+ proteinuria
D) Headache
Correct Answer: B) 480 mL urine output in 24 hr
Expert Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr or less than 500 mL in 24 hours indicates
oliguria and impaired renal function. This finding suggests worsening preeclampsia and requires
immediate intervention. Normal urine output should be at least 30 mL/hr.
7. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation about manifestations of
potential complications that she should report to her provider. Which of the following
information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Breast tenderness
B) Swelling of the face
C) Nausea in the morning
D) Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: B) Swelling of the face
Expert Rationale: Facial swelling (edema) can be a sign of preeclampsia and should be reported
immediately. Breast tenderness, nausea, and urinary frequency are common discomforts of
early pregnancy.
8. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. The
nurse notes that the client is rubella non-immune, positive for group A beta-hemolytic
streptococci, and has a blood type O negative. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take?
A) Administer Rh immunoglobulin at 28 weeks
B) Administer rubella vaccine immediately
C) Instruct the client to obtain a rubella immunization after delivery
D) Begin antibiotic therapy for GBS after delivery
Correct Answer: C) Instruct the client to obtain a rubella immunization after delivery
Expert Rationale: Rubella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during
pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection. The client should receive the vaccine in
the immediate postpartum period before discharge.
