ACLS FINAL EXAM - COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE TEST COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
1. A patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome is placed on a
cardiac monitor and given supplemental oxygen. The provider
determines oxygen is effective based on which SaO2 level?
A) SaO2 of 88%
B) SaO2 of 90%
C) SaO2 of 92%
D) SaO2 of at least 94%
Rationale: Patients with suspected ACS should have oxygen
administered to maintain an SaO2 of at least 94%. This ensures
adequate tissue oxygenation while avoiding the potential harm of
hyperoxia.
2. During BVM ventilation, which complication would lead the team to
suspect improper technique is being used?
A) Gastric distention
B) Hypocapnia
C) Tension pneumothorax
D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Delivering excessive volume or ventilating too fast creates
excessive pressure that can damage the airways, lungs, and other
organs. Excessive volume can lead to tension pneumothorax.
,3. An ETCO2 level of 55 mmHg with an SaO2 of 88% indicates which
condition?
A) Respiratory failure
B) Cardiac arrest
C) Hyperventilation syndrome
D) Metabolic acidosis
Rationale: An SaO2 level of less than 90% (PaO2 of less than 50 mmHg)
accompanied by ETCO2 values greater than 50 mmHg is indicative of
respiratory failure.
4. Which ETCO2 value confirms adequate ventilation?
A) 25 mmHg
B) 35-45 mmHg
C) 50-55 mmHg
D) 60 mmHg
Rationale: End-tidal carbon dioxide values in the range of 35 to 45
mmHg confirm adequacy of ventilation.
5. An ECG rhythm strip shows a "sawtooth" pattern in leads II and III
with a 2:1 conduction ratio. Which arrhythmia is this?
A) Atrial flutter
B) Atrial fibrillation
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Supraventricular tachycardia
,Rationale: In atrial flutter, the baseline continually rises and falls
producing "flutter" waves. In leads II and III, the flutter waves may be
quite prominent creating a "sawtooth" pattern.
6. What is the FIRST assessment a healthcare provider performs when
a person suddenly collapses?
A) Primary assessment
B) Rapid assessment
C) Secondary assessment
D) Focused assessment
Rationale: A systematic approach is necessary. The healthcare provider
should first perform a rapid assessment, which is a quick visual survey
to ensure safety, form an initial impression, and check for
responsiveness, breathing, and pulse.
7. In a 35-year-old female patient, new ST-segment elevation at the J
point in leads V2 and V3 of at least which size is considered diagnostic
of STEMI?
A) 0.10 mV (1.0 mm)
B) 0.15 mV (1.5 mm)
C) 0.15 mV (1.5 mm) in women 40 years or younger
D) 0.20 mV (2.0 mm)
Rationale: New ST-segment elevation at the J point in leads V2 and V3
of at least 0.15 mV (1.5 mm) in women 40 years or younger is
considered diagnostic of STEMI.
, 8. Which two features on ECG indicate atrial fibrillation?
A) Absence of discrete P waves and irregularly irregular QRS
complexes
B) Presence of flutter waves and regular QRS complexes
C) Absence of QRS complexes and presence of P waves
D) Regular QRS complexes and presence of discrete P waves
Rationale: The two key features of atrial fibrillation on ECG are the
absence of discrete P waves and the presence of irregularly irregular
QRS complexes.
9. What is the recommended compression rate for adult CPR?
A) 80-100 compressions per minute
B) 100-120 compressions per minute
C) 120-140 compressions per minute
D) 60-80 compressions per minute
Rationale: The recommended compression rate for adult CPR is 100-
120 compressions per minute, which optimizes coronary perfusion
pressure and cardiac output.
10. What is the recommended compression depth for adult CPR?
A) At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B) At least 1.5 inches (4 cm)
C) At least 2 inches (5 cm)
D) At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
1. A patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome is placed on a
cardiac monitor and given supplemental oxygen. The provider
determines oxygen is effective based on which SaO2 level?
A) SaO2 of 88%
B) SaO2 of 90%
C) SaO2 of 92%
D) SaO2 of at least 94%
Rationale: Patients with suspected ACS should have oxygen
administered to maintain an SaO2 of at least 94%. This ensures
adequate tissue oxygenation while avoiding the potential harm of
hyperoxia.
2. During BVM ventilation, which complication would lead the team to
suspect improper technique is being used?
A) Gastric distention
B) Hypocapnia
C) Tension pneumothorax
D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Delivering excessive volume or ventilating too fast creates
excessive pressure that can damage the airways, lungs, and other
organs. Excessive volume can lead to tension pneumothorax.
,3. An ETCO2 level of 55 mmHg with an SaO2 of 88% indicates which
condition?
A) Respiratory failure
B) Cardiac arrest
C) Hyperventilation syndrome
D) Metabolic acidosis
Rationale: An SaO2 level of less than 90% (PaO2 of less than 50 mmHg)
accompanied by ETCO2 values greater than 50 mmHg is indicative of
respiratory failure.
4. Which ETCO2 value confirms adequate ventilation?
A) 25 mmHg
B) 35-45 mmHg
C) 50-55 mmHg
D) 60 mmHg
Rationale: End-tidal carbon dioxide values in the range of 35 to 45
mmHg confirm adequacy of ventilation.
5. An ECG rhythm strip shows a "sawtooth" pattern in leads II and III
with a 2:1 conduction ratio. Which arrhythmia is this?
A) Atrial flutter
B) Atrial fibrillation
C) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Supraventricular tachycardia
,Rationale: In atrial flutter, the baseline continually rises and falls
producing "flutter" waves. In leads II and III, the flutter waves may be
quite prominent creating a "sawtooth" pattern.
6. What is the FIRST assessment a healthcare provider performs when
a person suddenly collapses?
A) Primary assessment
B) Rapid assessment
C) Secondary assessment
D) Focused assessment
Rationale: A systematic approach is necessary. The healthcare provider
should first perform a rapid assessment, which is a quick visual survey
to ensure safety, form an initial impression, and check for
responsiveness, breathing, and pulse.
7. In a 35-year-old female patient, new ST-segment elevation at the J
point in leads V2 and V3 of at least which size is considered diagnostic
of STEMI?
A) 0.10 mV (1.0 mm)
B) 0.15 mV (1.5 mm)
C) 0.15 mV (1.5 mm) in women 40 years or younger
D) 0.20 mV (2.0 mm)
Rationale: New ST-segment elevation at the J point in leads V2 and V3
of at least 0.15 mV (1.5 mm) in women 40 years or younger is
considered diagnostic of STEMI.
, 8. Which two features on ECG indicate atrial fibrillation?
A) Absence of discrete P waves and irregularly irregular QRS
complexes
B) Presence of flutter waves and regular QRS complexes
C) Absence of QRS complexes and presence of P waves
D) Regular QRS complexes and presence of discrete P waves
Rationale: The two key features of atrial fibrillation on ECG are the
absence of discrete P waves and the presence of irregularly irregular
QRS complexes.
9. What is the recommended compression rate for adult CPR?
A) 80-100 compressions per minute
B) 100-120 compressions per minute
C) 120-140 compressions per minute
D) 60-80 compressions per minute
Rationale: The recommended compression rate for adult CPR is 100-
120 compressions per minute, which optimizes coronary perfusion
pressure and cardiac output.
10. What is the recommended compression depth for adult CPR?
A) At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B) At least 1.5 inches (4 cm)
C) At least 2 inches (5 cm)
D) At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
