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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
Practice Exam 2026 | 100 Questions &
Answers with Detailed Rationales |
Complete Exam Prep & Study Guide
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which finding should the
nurse recognize as an indication of worsening left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Crackles in the lungs
D. Enlarged liver
Answer: Crackles in the lungs
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, which can
produce crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea. Peripheral edema, jugular venous
distention, and hepatomegaly are more characteristic of right-sided heart
failure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving digoxin. Which finding requires the
nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Heart rate 54/min
B. Blood pressure 128/74 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate 18/min
D. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
Answer: Heart rate 54/min
,Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should withhold digoxin
when the adult apical pulse is below 60/min and notify the provider according
to facility policy.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports sweating, trembling, and weakness.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Check the client's blood glucose
C. Encourage the client to exercise
D. Restrict oral fluids
Answer: Check the client's blood glucose
Rationale: Sweating, trembling, and weakness are manifestations of
hypoglycemia. The nurse should immediately check the blood glucose level and
treat hypoglycemia promptly if confirmed or strongly suspected.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which oxygen prescription should the nurse expect?
A. 10 L/min by nonrebreather mask
B. 6 L/min by simple mask
C. 1 to 2 L/min by nasal cannula
D. 15 L/min by nonrebreather mask
Answer: 1 to 2 L/min by nasal cannula
Rationale: Clients with COPD often require controlled, low-flow oxygen therapy.
Oxygen should be administered at the prescribed rate while monitoring
respiratory status and oxygen saturation.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypokalemia. Which finding should the
nurse expect?
A. Muscle weakness
B. Hyperactive reflexes
,C. Peaked T waves
D. Severe hypertension
Answer: Muscle weakness
Rationale: Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness, fatigue, constipation, and
cardiac dysrhythmias. Peaked T waves are associated with hyperkalemia.
6. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, fever, and low
back pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the transfusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Flush the blood tubing with dextrose 5% in water
Answer: Stop the transfusion
Rationale: Fever, chills, and low back pain can indicate an acute hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the transfusion immediately and
maintain IV access with compatible solution according to protocol.
7. A nurse is teaching a client who is taking warfarin. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I should avoid all foods containing vitamin K.”
B. “I should maintain a consistent intake of foods containing vitamin K.”
C. “I can take aspirin whenever I have a headache.”
D. “I do not need blood tests while taking this medication.”
Answer: “I should maintain a consistent intake of foods containing vitamin K.”
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin should maintain a consistent vitamin K intake
rather than eliminating vitamin K completely. INR monitoring is necessary, and
medications that increase bleeding risk should be discussed with the provider.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
, A. Tidaling in the water-seal chamber
B. Small amount of drainage
C. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
D. Mild discomfort at the insertion site
Answer: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber can indicate an air
leak in the system. The nurse should assess the tubing and connections and
intervene according to the cause.
9. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril reports swelling of the lips
and tongue. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C. Hold the medication and obtain immediate medical assistance
D. Encourage increased fluid intake
Answer: Hold the medication and obtain immediate medical assistance
Rationale: Facial, lip, or tongue swelling can indicate angioedema, a potentially
life-threatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors that can compromise the
airway.
10.A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure. Which
finding is concerning?
A. Decreased level of consciousness
B. Increased appetite
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Increased urinary output
Answer: Decreased level of consciousness
Rationale: A change in level of consciousness is an important early indicator of
neurologic deterioration and increased intracranial pressure.
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
Practice Exam 2026 | 100 Questions &
Answers with Detailed Rationales |
Complete Exam Prep & Study Guide
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which finding should the
nurse recognize as an indication of worsening left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Crackles in the lungs
D. Enlarged liver
Answer: Crackles in the lungs
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, which can
produce crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea. Peripheral edema, jugular venous
distention, and hepatomegaly are more characteristic of right-sided heart
failure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving digoxin. Which finding requires the
nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Heart rate 54/min
B. Blood pressure 128/74 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate 18/min
D. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
Answer: Heart rate 54/min
,Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should withhold digoxin
when the adult apical pulse is below 60/min and notify the provider according
to facility policy.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports sweating, trembling, and weakness.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Check the client's blood glucose
C. Encourage the client to exercise
D. Restrict oral fluids
Answer: Check the client's blood glucose
Rationale: Sweating, trembling, and weakness are manifestations of
hypoglycemia. The nurse should immediately check the blood glucose level and
treat hypoglycemia promptly if confirmed or strongly suspected.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which oxygen prescription should the nurse expect?
A. 10 L/min by nonrebreather mask
B. 6 L/min by simple mask
C. 1 to 2 L/min by nasal cannula
D. 15 L/min by nonrebreather mask
Answer: 1 to 2 L/min by nasal cannula
Rationale: Clients with COPD often require controlled, low-flow oxygen therapy.
Oxygen should be administered at the prescribed rate while monitoring
respiratory status and oxygen saturation.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypokalemia. Which finding should the
nurse expect?
A. Muscle weakness
B. Hyperactive reflexes
,C. Peaked T waves
D. Severe hypertension
Answer: Muscle weakness
Rationale: Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness, fatigue, constipation, and
cardiac dysrhythmias. Peaked T waves are associated with hyperkalemia.
6. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, fever, and low
back pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the transfusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Flush the blood tubing with dextrose 5% in water
Answer: Stop the transfusion
Rationale: Fever, chills, and low back pain can indicate an acute hemolytic
transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the transfusion immediately and
maintain IV access with compatible solution according to protocol.
7. A nurse is teaching a client who is taking warfarin. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I should avoid all foods containing vitamin K.”
B. “I should maintain a consistent intake of foods containing vitamin K.”
C. “I can take aspirin whenever I have a headache.”
D. “I do not need blood tests while taking this medication.”
Answer: “I should maintain a consistent intake of foods containing vitamin K.”
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin should maintain a consistent vitamin K intake
rather than eliminating vitamin K completely. INR monitoring is necessary, and
medications that increase bleeding risk should be discussed with the provider.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
, A. Tidaling in the water-seal chamber
B. Small amount of drainage
C. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
D. Mild discomfort at the insertion site
Answer: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber can indicate an air
leak in the system. The nurse should assess the tubing and connections and
intervene according to the cause.
9. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril reports swelling of the lips
and tongue. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose with food
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C. Hold the medication and obtain immediate medical assistance
D. Encourage increased fluid intake
Answer: Hold the medication and obtain immediate medical assistance
Rationale: Facial, lip, or tongue swelling can indicate angioedema, a potentially
life-threatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors that can compromise the
airway.
10.A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure. Which
finding is concerning?
A. Decreased level of consciousness
B. Increased appetite
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Increased urinary output
Answer: Decreased level of consciousness
Rationale: A change in level of consciousness is an important early indicator of
neurologic deterioration and increased intracranial pressure.
