WGU D444 ADULT HEALTH 1 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT 2026 – EXAM-STYLE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | 2026/27 LATEST UPDATE | EXAM PREP |
STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1-50
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been prescribed furosemide for the
management of heart failure. Which finding is the priority to report to the
healthcare provider?
A. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
C. Weight loss of 2.2 pounds since yesterday
D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium
wasting. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a
critical finding because it can precipitate life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias,
especially in clients taking digitalis. While the blood pressure and weight loss are
expected therapeutic effects, and the sodium level is within normal limits, the
hypokalemia is the priority due to its potential for immediate, severe consequences.
,2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory
value is most indicative of this condition?
A. Elevated serum amylase
B. Elevated serum bilirubin
C. Decreased serum calcium
D. Decreased serum albumin
Correct Answer: A. Elevated serum amylase
Rationale: Serum amylase and lipase are the primary diagnostic markers for acute
pancreatitis. Amylase levels typically rise within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms.
While elevated bilirubin may indicate a biliary obstruction, a common cause of
pancreatitis, it is not the most specific indicator. Decreased serum calcium can occur
in severe pancreatitis due to saponification, but it is a secondary finding. Decreased
albumin is a non-specific indicator of malnutrition or liver dysfunction.
3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after a myocardial
infarction. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of
the prescribed antiplatelet therapy?
A. "I should take this medication with an antacid to protect my stomach."
B. "I will need to stop taking this medication a week before any dental
procedure."
C. "I can substitute this medication with ibuprofen if I have a headache."
D. "This medication will help to dissolve any blood clots that form in my arteries."
,Correct Answer: B. "I will need to stop taking this medication a week before any
dental procedure."
Rationale: Antiplatelet medications, such as aspirin or clopidogrel, increase the risk
of bleeding. Clients are often instructed to hold these medications for a specified
period, usually 5-7 days, before invasive or surgical procedures to prevent excessive
bleeding. Taking them with an antacid may interfere with absorption. Ibuprofen
should be avoided as it can reduce the cardioprotective effects of aspirin. These
medications prevent platelet aggregation, they do not dissolve existing clots (which
is the function of thrombolytics).
4. A client is admitted with a fractured right femur and is placed in Buck's
traction. What is the primary purpose of this type of traction?
A. To align the fracture fragments and maintain alignment.
B. To provide rigid immobilization of the fracture site.
C. To reduce muscle spasms and alleviate pain.
D. To allow for early ambulation and weight-bearing.
Correct Answer: C. To reduce muscle spasms and alleviate pain.
Rationale: Buck's traction is a type of skin traction used primarily to reduce muscle
spasms and pain, often pre-operatively. It helps to stabilize the fracture but does
not provide the rigid immobilization needed for definitive alignment or weight-
bearing. Its main purpose is to fatigue and relax the large muscle groups around
the hip and femur, making the patient more comfortable and aiding in subsequent
procedures.
, 5. A nurse is caring for a client in the immediate postoperative period following
a total hip arthroplasty. Which action is a priority to prevent dislocation of the
new prosthesis?
A. Maintain the client in a supine position with a pillow between the legs.
B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position with knees flexed.
C. Instruct the client to perform ankle pumps and foot exercises.
D. Encourage the client to turn independently to prevent pressure injuries.
Correct Answer: A. Maintain the client in a supine position with a pillow between
the legs.
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, maintaining the hip in a position of
abduction is critical to prevent dislocation. A pillow or an abductor splint between
the legs keeps the hip in a neutral or slightly abducted position. Flexion past 90
degrees, adduction, and internal rotation are positions that can cause the prosthetic
head to dislocate from the acetabulum. High Fowler's with knees flexed would
violate the hip flexion precaution.
6. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the client and
notes they are lethargic and confused. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of these symptoms?
A. Oxygen toxicity
B. Hypoventilation and carbon dioxide retention
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Allergic reaction to the nasal cannula
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | 2026/27 LATEST UPDATE | EXAM PREP |
STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1-50
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has been prescribed furosemide for the
management of heart failure. Which finding is the priority to report to the
healthcare provider?
A. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
C. Weight loss of 2.2 pounds since yesterday
D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium
wasting. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a
critical finding because it can precipitate life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias,
especially in clients taking digitalis. While the blood pressure and weight loss are
expected therapeutic effects, and the sodium level is within normal limits, the
hypokalemia is the priority due to its potential for immediate, severe consequences.
,2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory
value is most indicative of this condition?
A. Elevated serum amylase
B. Elevated serum bilirubin
C. Decreased serum calcium
D. Decreased serum albumin
Correct Answer: A. Elevated serum amylase
Rationale: Serum amylase and lipase are the primary diagnostic markers for acute
pancreatitis. Amylase levels typically rise within 24 hours of the onset of symptoms.
While elevated bilirubin may indicate a biliary obstruction, a common cause of
pancreatitis, it is not the most specific indicator. Decreased serum calcium can occur
in severe pancreatitis due to saponification, but it is a secondary finding. Decreased
albumin is a non-specific indicator of malnutrition or liver dysfunction.
3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after a myocardial
infarction. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of
the prescribed antiplatelet therapy?
A. "I should take this medication with an antacid to protect my stomach."
B. "I will need to stop taking this medication a week before any dental
procedure."
C. "I can substitute this medication with ibuprofen if I have a headache."
D. "This medication will help to dissolve any blood clots that form in my arteries."
,Correct Answer: B. "I will need to stop taking this medication a week before any
dental procedure."
Rationale: Antiplatelet medications, such as aspirin or clopidogrel, increase the risk
of bleeding. Clients are often instructed to hold these medications for a specified
period, usually 5-7 days, before invasive or surgical procedures to prevent excessive
bleeding. Taking them with an antacid may interfere with absorption. Ibuprofen
should be avoided as it can reduce the cardioprotective effects of aspirin. These
medications prevent platelet aggregation, they do not dissolve existing clots (which
is the function of thrombolytics).
4. A client is admitted with a fractured right femur and is placed in Buck's
traction. What is the primary purpose of this type of traction?
A. To align the fracture fragments and maintain alignment.
B. To provide rigid immobilization of the fracture site.
C. To reduce muscle spasms and alleviate pain.
D. To allow for early ambulation and weight-bearing.
Correct Answer: C. To reduce muscle spasms and alleviate pain.
Rationale: Buck's traction is a type of skin traction used primarily to reduce muscle
spasms and pain, often pre-operatively. It helps to stabilize the fracture but does
not provide the rigid immobilization needed for definitive alignment or weight-
bearing. Its main purpose is to fatigue and relax the large muscle groups around
the hip and femur, making the patient more comfortable and aiding in subsequent
procedures.
, 5. A nurse is caring for a client in the immediate postoperative period following
a total hip arthroplasty. Which action is a priority to prevent dislocation of the
new prosthesis?
A. Maintain the client in a supine position with a pillow between the legs.
B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position with knees flexed.
C. Instruct the client to perform ankle pumps and foot exercises.
D. Encourage the client to turn independently to prevent pressure injuries.
Correct Answer: A. Maintain the client in a supine position with a pillow between
the legs.
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, maintaining the hip in a position of
abduction is critical to prevent dislocation. A pillow or an abductor splint between
the legs keeps the hip in a neutral or slightly abducted position. Flexion past 90
degrees, adduction, and internal rotation are positions that can cause the prosthetic
head to dislocate from the acetabulum. High Fowler's with knees flexed would
violate the hip flexion precaution.
6. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the client and
notes they are lethargic and confused. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of these symptoms?
A. Oxygen toxicity
B. Hypoventilation and carbon dioxide retention
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Allergic reaction to the nasal cannula
