NR 601 CEA COMPREHENSIVE CERTIFICATION EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2… EXAM
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
NR 601 CEA Comprehensive
Certification Exam
Questions & Answers 2026-
2027 (Rationales)
Verified Answers Exam Ready With Rationales
324 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This comprehensive document provides 324 questions with correct answers and detailed rationales,
covering advanced practice nursing clinical scenarios. It is an invaluable resource for study and review,
directly aligning with comprehensive certification exam preparation.
CONTENTS
01 • All Questions
E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 324
Page 1
,The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
CORRECT ANSWER
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
RATIONALE
Consolidation obscuring the left heart border on a PA view, and absent posterior to the cardiac silhouette on lateral,
precisely describes the location of the left upper lobe lingula. This anatomical localization is determined by the
characteristic projection of the lingula anteriorly and medially.
Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 324
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses?
CORRECT ANSWER
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is
common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 324
Page 2
,An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him?
CORRECT ANSWER
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 324
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is
considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
CORRECT ANSWER
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with
contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a
plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction
needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the aorta
and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Q5 QUESTION 5 OF 324
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
CORRECT ANSWER
phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
Q6 QUESTION 6 OF 324
Page 3
, A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On
examination, she has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
CORRECT ANSWER
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is
congestive heart failure.
Q7 QUESTION 7 OF 324
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of
40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery. As
the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would you expect
to be a priority in the patient's care?
CORRECT ANSWER
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable automated cardioverter
defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with
low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their
medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required
by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
Q8 QUESTION 8 OF 324
Page 4
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
NR 601 CEA Comprehensive
Certification Exam
Questions & Answers 2026-
2027 (Rationales)
Verified Answers Exam Ready With Rationales
324 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This comprehensive document provides 324 questions with correct answers and detailed rationales,
covering advanced practice nursing clinical scenarios. It is an invaluable resource for study and review,
directly aligning with comprehensive certification exam preparation.
CONTENTS
01 • All Questions
E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 324
Page 1
,The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower
chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
CORRECT ANSWER
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is
obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
RATIONALE
Consolidation obscuring the left heart border on a PA view, and absent posterior to the cardiac silhouette on lateral,
precisely describes the location of the left upper lobe lingula. This anatomical localization is determined by the
characteristic projection of the lingula anteriorly and medially.
Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 324
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses?
CORRECT ANSWER
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is
common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 324
Page 2
,An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him?
CORRECT ANSWER
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for
hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 324
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is
considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
CORRECT ANSWER
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with
contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a
plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction
needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the aorta
and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Q5 QUESTION 5 OF 324
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
CORRECT ANSWER
phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
Q6 QUESTION 6 OF 324
Page 3
, A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On
examination, she has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
CORRECT ANSWER
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying
both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are
suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is
congestive heart failure.
Q7 QUESTION 7 OF 324
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of
40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this
admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery. As
the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would you expect
to be a priority in the patient's care?
CORRECT ANSWER
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable automated cardioverter
defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with
low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their
medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required
by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
Q8 QUESTION 8 OF 324
Page 4
