300 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE ALREADY
GRADED A+
This comprehensive 300-question examination resource covers reproductive health
across the lifespan, integrating obstetrics, gynecology, male reproductive disorders,
STIs, and psychopharmacology. Organized into seven sections, it progresses from
foundational concepts (Five P's, GTPAL, congenital anomalies) through obstetric
conditions, gynecological disorders, breast pathology, male reproductive health,
sexually transmitted infections, and psychotropic medication effects on
reproductive function. Each question includes multiple-choice options with
detailed rationales explaining pathophysiological mechanisms, clinical
manifestations, diagnostic approaches, and evidence-based interventions. This
evidence-based study tool promotes clinical reasoning, medication management
understanding, and exam readiness for advanced nursing students preparing for
comprehensive reproductive health examinations.
Section 1: Foundational Reproductive Concepts and Terminology (Questions 1-
50)
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Question 1
What are the five 5 P's used in sexual health assessment?
A) Partners, practices, past history of STI, protection, prevention of pregnancy
(and pleasure)
B) Partners, pregnancy, protection, practices, past history
C) Protection, partners, pregnancy, prevention, practices
D) Past history, partners, protection, pregnancy, practices
Answer: A
,Rationale: The Five P's provide a comprehensive framework for sexual health
assessment. They include partners (number and gender), practices (type of sexual
activities), past history of STIs, protection (use of condoms/barrier methods), and
prevention of pregnancy (contraceptive use). Pleasure is also an important
consideration in comprehensive sexual health assessment .
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Question 2
Hypospadias is defined as:
A) Abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the undersurface of the
penis
B) Congenital defect in which the urinary meatus is located on the upper surface of
the penis
C) Abnormal opening of the urethra in the perineum
D) Absence of the urethral opening
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital anomaly where the urethral meatus is
located on the ventral or undersurface of the penis rather than at the tip. This
condition may require surgical correction and can affect urinary function and
fertility .
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Question 3
Epispadias is defined as:
A) Abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the undersurface of the
penis
B) Congenital defect in which the urinary meatus is located on the upper surface of
the penis
C) Congenital narrowing of the urethral opening
D) Absence of the urethra
Answer: B
,Rationale: Epispadias is a congenital defect where the urinary meatus is located on
the dorsal or upper surface of the penis. This is less common than hypospadias and
may be associated with other congenital anomalies such as bladder exstrophy .
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Question 4
Nägele's rule is used to:
A) Estimate the due date of a pregnancy
B) Determine fetal position
C) Calculate gestational age from fundal height
D) Assess fetal heart rate
Answer: A
Rationale: Nägele's rule estimates the expected date of delivery by taking the first
day of the last menstrual period, subtracting 3 months, adding 7 days, and adding
one year. This calculation assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle and is a standard
obstetric estimation tool .
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Question 5
What is the difference between presumptive and positive signs of pregnancy?
A) Presumptive signs are noted on exam; positive signs are directly linked to the
fetus
B) Presumptive signs are directly linked to the fetus; positive signs are noted on
exam
C) Presumptive signs are subjective; positive signs are objective
D) Presumptive signs are objective; positive signs are subjective
Answer: A
Rationale: Presumptive signs of pregnancy are probable indicators noted during
physical examination, such as Chadwick's sign or Goodell's sign. Positive signs are
those directly linked to the fetus, including fetal heart tones, fetal movement
palpated by the examiner, and visualization of the fetus on ultrasound .
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Question 6
GTPAL stands for:
A) Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living
B) Gestation, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Labor
C) Gravida, Term, Postterm, Abortions, Living
D) Gestation, Term, Postterm, Abortions, Labor
Answer: A
Rationale: GTPAL is the standard system for documenting a woman's obstetric
history. Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, Term refers to
pregnancies reaching 37-42 weeks, Preterm refers to pregnancies ending between
20-37 weeks, Abortions includes both spontaneous and elective abortions, and
Living refers to the number of living children .
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Question 7
The difference between gravida and para is:
A) Gravida is the number of pregnancies; para is the number of births
B) Gravida is the number of births; para is the number of pregnancies
C) Gravida is the number of living children; para is the number of pregnancies
D) Gravida is the number of abortions; para is the number of births
Answer: A
Rationale: Gravida indicates the total number of pregnancies a woman has had,
including the current pregnancy. Para indicates the number of pregnancies that
have reached viability and resulted in a birth (live or stillborn). This distinction is
important for accurately documenting obstetric history .
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Question 8
In GTPAL, the T stands for: