Ultimate Praxis 5331 SPEECH
PATHOLOGY Questions & Answers with
100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest
Update 2026
1. A child produces [w] for /r/ and [j] for /l/. This pattern is known as:
A. Stopping
B. Fronting
C. Gliding
D. Vowelization
Answer: C
,rational,: Gliding is a phonological process where liquids (/r/, /l/) are replaced by
glides (/w/, /j/). Stopping replaces fricatives with stops; fronting moves place of
articulation anteriorly; vowelization replaces a consonant with a vowel.
2. The cranial nerve primarily responsible for innervating the muscles of the
soft palate (except tensor veli palatini) is:
A. V (Trigeminal)
B. VII (Facial)
C. IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D. X (Vagus)
Answer: D
,rational,: The vagus nerve (CN X) innervates most palatal muscles, including the
levator veli palatini, essential for velopharyngeal closure. The tensor veli palatini is
innervated by the trigeminal nerve (V). The glossopharyngeal (IX) contributes to
pharyngeal sensation and some motor function.
,3. In voice evaluation, the "s/z ratio" is used to screen for:
A. Hypernasality
B. Vocal fold paresis or laryngeal pathology
C. Articulation errors
D. Dysphagia
Answer: B
,rational,: The s/z ratio measures maximum phonation time of /s/ vs /z/. A ratio
>1.4 suggests possible glottic insufficiency because /z/ requires vocal fold vibration
while /s/ does not. It screens for laryngeal pathology.
4. A patient presents with slow, effortful speech, sound distortions, and
groping of the articulators. This is most consistent with:
A. Broca's aphasia
B. Apraxia of speech
C. Dysarthria
D. Wernicke's aphasia
Answer: B
,rational,: Apraxia of speech (AOS) is a motor planning/programming disorder
characterized by articulatory groping, inconsistent errors, and difficulty initiating
speech. Dysarthria is a motor execution disorder. Broca's aphasia includes
agrammatism and nonfluent output but not necessarily groping.
5. According to Brown's stages of language development, the mean length of
utterance (MLU) range for Stage V is approximately:
A. 1.0–2.0 morphemes
B. 2.0–2.5 morphemes
C. 3.0–3.75 morphemes
D. 4.0+ morphemes
Answer: D
,rational,: Brown’s Stage V corresponds to MLU of 3.75–4.5+ morphemes. It marks
the acquisition of later-developing morphemes (e.g., contractible auxiliary, irregular
,third person). Stage I is 1.0–2.0; Stage II 2.0–2.5; Stage III 2.5–3.0; Stage IV 3.0–
3.75.
6. A patient exhibits hypernasality and nasal emission on non-nasal phonemes.
This indicates a problem with:
A. Laryngeal function
B. Velopharyngeal inadequacy
C. Articulatory placement
D. Respiratory support
Answer: B
,rational,: Hypernasality on oral sounds and audible nasal emission are classic
signs of velopharyngeal inadequacy (VPI), where the velum fails to close the nasal
cavity during oral sound production.
7. Which of the following is a hallmark characteristic of autism spectrum
disorder (ASD) in a 3-year-old?
A. Articulation errors only
B. Persistent deficits in social communication and restricted/repetitive behaviors
C. Selective mutism in specific settings
D. Fluent speech with paraphasias
Answer: B
,rational,: The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for ASD include persistent deficits in
social communication/interaction and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior.
Speech/language delay is common but not the defining feature.
8. The phonological process of "cluster reduction" is typically suppressed by
what age?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4–5 years
D. 7 years
Answer: C
, ,rational,: Cluster reduction (e.g., "poon" for "spoon") is generally eliminated by 4–
5 years of age in typically developing children. Persistence beyond this may indicate
a phonological disorder.
9. A 70-year-old presents with sudden onset of fluent speech, poor
comprehension, and meaningless jargon. The most likely type of aphasia is:
A. Broca's
B. Transcortical motor
C. Wernicke's
D. Global
Answer: C
,rational,: Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by fluent, paragrammatic speech,
severely impaired auditory comprehension, and poor self-monitoring, often with
semantic paraphasias and jargon. Lesion is typically in the left posterior superior
temporal gyrus.
10. In the oral mechanism examination, asymmetry of the tongue on protrusion
indicates possible lesion of which cranial nerve?
A. V
B. VII
C. IX
D. XII
Answer: D
,rational,: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) innervates all intrinsic and most extrinsic
tongue muscles. Unilateral lesion causes the tongue to deviate toward the weaker
side on protrusion.
11. A child has a moderate sensorineural hearing loss. Which part of the ear is
affected?
A. Outer ear
B. Middle ear
C. Inner ear (cochlea) or auditory nerve
PATHOLOGY Questions & Answers with
100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest
Update 2026
1. A child produces [w] for /r/ and [j] for /l/. This pattern is known as:
A. Stopping
B. Fronting
C. Gliding
D. Vowelization
Answer: C
,rational,: Gliding is a phonological process where liquids (/r/, /l/) are replaced by
glides (/w/, /j/). Stopping replaces fricatives with stops; fronting moves place of
articulation anteriorly; vowelization replaces a consonant with a vowel.
2. The cranial nerve primarily responsible for innervating the muscles of the
soft palate (except tensor veli palatini) is:
A. V (Trigeminal)
B. VII (Facial)
C. IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D. X (Vagus)
Answer: D
,rational,: The vagus nerve (CN X) innervates most palatal muscles, including the
levator veli palatini, essential for velopharyngeal closure. The tensor veli palatini is
innervated by the trigeminal nerve (V). The glossopharyngeal (IX) contributes to
pharyngeal sensation and some motor function.
,3. In voice evaluation, the "s/z ratio" is used to screen for:
A. Hypernasality
B. Vocal fold paresis or laryngeal pathology
C. Articulation errors
D. Dysphagia
Answer: B
,rational,: The s/z ratio measures maximum phonation time of /s/ vs /z/. A ratio
>1.4 suggests possible glottic insufficiency because /z/ requires vocal fold vibration
while /s/ does not. It screens for laryngeal pathology.
4. A patient presents with slow, effortful speech, sound distortions, and
groping of the articulators. This is most consistent with:
A. Broca's aphasia
B. Apraxia of speech
C. Dysarthria
D. Wernicke's aphasia
Answer: B
,rational,: Apraxia of speech (AOS) is a motor planning/programming disorder
characterized by articulatory groping, inconsistent errors, and difficulty initiating
speech. Dysarthria is a motor execution disorder. Broca's aphasia includes
agrammatism and nonfluent output but not necessarily groping.
5. According to Brown's stages of language development, the mean length of
utterance (MLU) range for Stage V is approximately:
A. 1.0–2.0 morphemes
B. 2.0–2.5 morphemes
C. 3.0–3.75 morphemes
D. 4.0+ morphemes
Answer: D
,rational,: Brown’s Stage V corresponds to MLU of 3.75–4.5+ morphemes. It marks
the acquisition of later-developing morphemes (e.g., contractible auxiliary, irregular
,third person). Stage I is 1.0–2.0; Stage II 2.0–2.5; Stage III 2.5–3.0; Stage IV 3.0–
3.75.
6. A patient exhibits hypernasality and nasal emission on non-nasal phonemes.
This indicates a problem with:
A. Laryngeal function
B. Velopharyngeal inadequacy
C. Articulatory placement
D. Respiratory support
Answer: B
,rational,: Hypernasality on oral sounds and audible nasal emission are classic
signs of velopharyngeal inadequacy (VPI), where the velum fails to close the nasal
cavity during oral sound production.
7. Which of the following is a hallmark characteristic of autism spectrum
disorder (ASD) in a 3-year-old?
A. Articulation errors only
B. Persistent deficits in social communication and restricted/repetitive behaviors
C. Selective mutism in specific settings
D. Fluent speech with paraphasias
Answer: B
,rational,: The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for ASD include persistent deficits in
social communication/interaction and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior.
Speech/language delay is common but not the defining feature.
8. The phonological process of "cluster reduction" is typically suppressed by
what age?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4–5 years
D. 7 years
Answer: C
, ,rational,: Cluster reduction (e.g., "poon" for "spoon") is generally eliminated by 4–
5 years of age in typically developing children. Persistence beyond this may indicate
a phonological disorder.
9. A 70-year-old presents with sudden onset of fluent speech, poor
comprehension, and meaningless jargon. The most likely type of aphasia is:
A. Broca's
B. Transcortical motor
C. Wernicke's
D. Global
Answer: C
,rational,: Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by fluent, paragrammatic speech,
severely impaired auditory comprehension, and poor self-monitoring, often with
semantic paraphasias and jargon. Lesion is typically in the left posterior superior
temporal gyrus.
10. In the oral mechanism examination, asymmetry of the tongue on protrusion
indicates possible lesion of which cranial nerve?
A. V
B. VII
C. IX
D. XII
Answer: D
,rational,: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) innervates all intrinsic and most extrinsic
tongue muscles. Unilateral lesion causes the tongue to deviate toward the weaker
side on protrusion.
11. A child has a moderate sensorineural hearing loss. Which part of the ear is
affected?
A. Outer ear
B. Middle ear
C. Inner ear (cochlea) or auditory nerve
