Wound Care Exam-50 Questions And Verified
Answers 2026/2027 – NP/RN Exam
Overview:
This 50-question set reinforces evidence-based wound management for NPs/RNs:
wound assessment, staging, debridement, dressing selection, pressure injury
prevention, diabetic/venous/arterial ulcers, NPWT, ostomy care, enterocutaneous
fistula, malignant wounds, lymphedema, and nutrition. Based on WOCN, NPIAP, ADA,
and AHRQ guidelines. Use it for NR 601, CWS, CWCN, or WOCN exam prep. Answers
are in bold Green.
Q1
Which stage of pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss with visible
subcutaneous fat but no bone/tendon?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Rationale: NPUAP 2016: Stage 3 = full-thickness, subq visible. Stage 4 = muscle/bone.
Q2
A patient with a venous ulcer should avoid:
A. Compression therapy
B. Leg elevation
C. Prolonged sitting/standing without movement
D. Walking
Rationale: Venous ulcers need compression + elevation + calf pump exercise.
Prolonged dependency worsens edema.
Q3
Which dressing is most appropriate for a dry, necrotic heel eschar that is stable with no
signs of infection?
A. Wet-to-dry gauze
B. Hydrogel
C. Leave dry, no debridement, offload
D. Enzymatic debrider
Rationale: Stable heel eschar = leave intact. Debride only if fluctuant/infected. Keep
dry.
Q4
The “R” in TIME wound bed prep stands for:
A. Redness
B. Regeneration/Repair of edge
C. Rotation
D. Recurrence
Rationale: TIME = Tissue, Infection/Inflammation, Moisture, Edge advancement.
Q5
An ABI of 0.6 indicates:
, A. Normal
B. Mild PAD
C. Moderate PAD
D. Severe PAD
Rationale: ABI: 0.71-0.9 mild, 0.41-0.7 moderate, ≤0.4 severe. Compression caution
<0.8.
Q6
Which is a sign of arterial ulcer?
A. Irregular border
B. Brown staining
C. Punched-out, painful, pale wound base
D. Edema
Rationale: Arterial = punched-out, pale, cool, painful, distal. Venous = irregular, edema.
Q7
A diabetic foot ulcer is present. What is the first assessment?
A. Culture the wound
B. Check for loss of protective sensation + vascular status
C. Apply antibiotic ointment
D. X-ray for osteomyelitis
Rationale: LOPS + PAD = highest risk. Use 10g monofilament + ABI/pulses before
culture.
Q8
Which type of debridement uses the body’s own enzymes and moisture?
A. Sharp
B. Enzymatic
C. Autolytic
D. Mechanical
Rationale: Autolytic = hydrogel/hydrocolloid + body’s WBC enzymes. Slow, selective.
Q9
A wound with 90% red granulation and minimal exudate needs:
A. Alginate
B. Hydrocolloid or foam
C. Wet-to-dry
D. Iodine
Rationale: Granulating, minimal drainage = maintain moist environment.
Hydrocolloid/foam.
Q10
Which is contraindicated for negative pressure wound therapy?
A. Stage 3 pressure injury
B. Diabetic foot ulcer
C. Exposed blood vessel
D. Surgical dehiscence
Rationale: NPWT contraindications: malignancy, untreated osteomyelitis, exposed
vessels/organs.
Q11
A patient with an ileostomy has output of 1,200 mL/day. Best intervention:
Answers 2026/2027 – NP/RN Exam
Overview:
This 50-question set reinforces evidence-based wound management for NPs/RNs:
wound assessment, staging, debridement, dressing selection, pressure injury
prevention, diabetic/venous/arterial ulcers, NPWT, ostomy care, enterocutaneous
fistula, malignant wounds, lymphedema, and nutrition. Based on WOCN, NPIAP, ADA,
and AHRQ guidelines. Use it for NR 601, CWS, CWCN, or WOCN exam prep. Answers
are in bold Green.
Q1
Which stage of pressure injury involves full-thickness skin loss with visible
subcutaneous fat but no bone/tendon?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Rationale: NPUAP 2016: Stage 3 = full-thickness, subq visible. Stage 4 = muscle/bone.
Q2
A patient with a venous ulcer should avoid:
A. Compression therapy
B. Leg elevation
C. Prolonged sitting/standing without movement
D. Walking
Rationale: Venous ulcers need compression + elevation + calf pump exercise.
Prolonged dependency worsens edema.
Q3
Which dressing is most appropriate for a dry, necrotic heel eschar that is stable with no
signs of infection?
A. Wet-to-dry gauze
B. Hydrogel
C. Leave dry, no debridement, offload
D. Enzymatic debrider
Rationale: Stable heel eschar = leave intact. Debride only if fluctuant/infected. Keep
dry.
Q4
The “R” in TIME wound bed prep stands for:
A. Redness
B. Regeneration/Repair of edge
C. Rotation
D. Recurrence
Rationale: TIME = Tissue, Infection/Inflammation, Moisture, Edge advancement.
Q5
An ABI of 0.6 indicates:
, A. Normal
B. Mild PAD
C. Moderate PAD
D. Severe PAD
Rationale: ABI: 0.71-0.9 mild, 0.41-0.7 moderate, ≤0.4 severe. Compression caution
<0.8.
Q6
Which is a sign of arterial ulcer?
A. Irregular border
B. Brown staining
C. Punched-out, painful, pale wound base
D. Edema
Rationale: Arterial = punched-out, pale, cool, painful, distal. Venous = irregular, edema.
Q7
A diabetic foot ulcer is present. What is the first assessment?
A. Culture the wound
B. Check for loss of protective sensation + vascular status
C. Apply antibiotic ointment
D. X-ray for osteomyelitis
Rationale: LOPS + PAD = highest risk. Use 10g monofilament + ABI/pulses before
culture.
Q8
Which type of debridement uses the body’s own enzymes and moisture?
A. Sharp
B. Enzymatic
C. Autolytic
D. Mechanical
Rationale: Autolytic = hydrogel/hydrocolloid + body’s WBC enzymes. Slow, selective.
Q9
A wound with 90% red granulation and minimal exudate needs:
A. Alginate
B. Hydrocolloid or foam
C. Wet-to-dry
D. Iodine
Rationale: Granulating, minimal drainage = maintain moist environment.
Hydrocolloid/foam.
Q10
Which is contraindicated for negative pressure wound therapy?
A. Stage 3 pressure injury
B. Diabetic foot ulcer
C. Exposed blood vessel
D. Surgical dehiscence
Rationale: NPWT contraindications: malignancy, untreated osteomyelitis, exposed
vessels/organs.
Q11
A patient with an ileostomy has output of 1,200 mL/day. Best intervention:
