EPIC AMB 400 EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
NEWEST 2026 TEST BANK| AMB400 EPIC
CARE ADMINISTRATION EXAM
1. A clinic manager wants to block a provider's schedule for a mandatory staff
meeting from 12:00 PM to 1:00 PM every Wednesday for the next three months.
Which tool should they use?
A) Appointment Type override
B) Recurring Unavailable block
C) Single-day schedule deletion
D) Template swap
Answer: B
Rationale: Recurring Unavailable blocks are designed to repeatedly reserve a
specific time slot across multiple dates without deleting the underlying template.
Single-day deletion (C) is temporary and manual, while template swap (D) would
replace the entire day's structure.
2. When a patient is marked as "Deceased" in Epic, what is the immediate
system impact on future scheduled appointments?
A) All future appointments are automatically canceled and the patient is placed on
a Do Not Schedule list.
B) Future appointments remain but display a "Deceased" alert to schedulers.
C) The system automatically reschedules the patient under a new MRN.
D) Schedulers can still schedule new appointments but must get manager
approval.
Answer: A
Rationale: Epic automatically cancels all future scheduled appointments when a
patient's death date is entered and prevents new scheduling via a hard stop. It
does not merely alert (B) or require approval (D), and MRNs are never
automatically reassigned (C).
,3. What is the primary function of the "Scheduling Security" record for a user?
A) It defines the user's login password complexity.
B) It determines which specific schedule templates and resources a user can view
and edit.
C) It restricts the user from accessing the billing module.
D) It defines the user's hours for overtime pay.
Answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling Security records are the gateway that links a user or
provider to specific template names, controlling visibility and edit rights. Password
complexity (A) is handled by Authentication Security, not Scheduling Security.
4. You are creating a new Department Master File. Which of the following is a
required field before the department can be used for scheduling?
A) Department’s preferred snack vendor
B) Facility ID and Financial Class
C) Number of parking spaces available
D) CEO’s approval timestamp
Answer: B
Rationale: Every department must be linked to a Facility (for location hierarchy)
and a Financial Class (for billing and visit categorization) to function. The other
options are not required system fields.
5. A scheduler accidentally books a patient in the wrong department. They
cancel the appointment, but the slot does not become available for other
patients. What is the most likely cause?
A) The appointment was checked in before cancellation.
B) The "Remove Hold" function was not checked during cancellation.
C) The patient has a financial hold on their account.
D) The slot was an "Open" slot that only that patient could use.
,Answer: B
Rationale: In Epic scheduling, when you cancel, a "Remove Hold" checkbox
appears. If unchecked, the system keeps the slot blocked to prevent double-
booking, requiring manual release. Check-in status (A) does not block release
upon cancellation.
6. Which Epic reporting tool is most commonly used by AMB 400 administrators
to perform ad-hoc queries and analyze scheduling patterns across multiple
departments?
A) Text Utility
B) SliceDice
C) Clinical Reminders
D) Chronicles Search
Answer: B
Rationale: SliceDice is Epic's primary ad-hoc reporting tool that allows
administrators to create custom queries on scheduling, patient flow, and
utilization without needing programming skills. Text Utility (A) is for data
manipulation, not analytics.
7. What does the "Master Benefit Order" (MBO) control in the patient's chart?
A) The order in which providers appear in a referral list.
B) The sequence in which insurance plans are billed for a patient encounter.
C) The priority ranking for organ transplant recipients.
D) The order of medications listed on the patient's medication reconciliation.
Answer: B
Rationale: MBO dictates the financial liability hierarchy—primary, secondary,
tertiary payers—so billing knows which insurance to submit claims to first. It has
nothing to do with clinical order or referrals.
, 8. A user reports they cannot see any schedules despite being assigned to the
"Scheduler" security class. What is the first setting you should verify?
A) Their EpicCare login password.
B) Their Scheduling Profile and Departmental Security associations.
C) Their physical workstation's IP address.
D) Their employee termination date in HR.
Answer: B
Rationale: A user needs both a valid Scheduling Profile (defining which templates)
and Departmental Security (defining which departments) to view schedules.
Password (A) would prevent login entirely, not just schedule view.
9. You are performing a "Department Move" for a clinic. What data is preserved
during this process?
A) Only the physical address changes; all schedule templates are deleted.
B) Master File number, historical appointments, and schedule templates remain
intact.
C) All patient financial data is purged and restarted.
D) Only the tax ID changes; all other fields are locked.
Answer: B
Rationale: The "Move Department" tool is designed to retain the core Master File
number, historical appointment data, and complex templates while updating only
location/billing attributes. It does not delete or purge data.
10. A patient calls to reschedule their appointment. Instead of canceling and
rebooking, the scheduler uses the "Move" function. What is the primary
advantage of this?
A) It automatically updates the patient's insurance eligibility.
B) It retains all original appointment metadata, referrals, and authorizations
without creating a new encounter.
C) It deletes the old appointment permanently without a trace.
D) It automatically notifies the police of the patient's change of plans.
NEWEST 2026 TEST BANK| AMB400 EPIC
CARE ADMINISTRATION EXAM
1. A clinic manager wants to block a provider's schedule for a mandatory staff
meeting from 12:00 PM to 1:00 PM every Wednesday for the next three months.
Which tool should they use?
A) Appointment Type override
B) Recurring Unavailable block
C) Single-day schedule deletion
D) Template swap
Answer: B
Rationale: Recurring Unavailable blocks are designed to repeatedly reserve a
specific time slot across multiple dates without deleting the underlying template.
Single-day deletion (C) is temporary and manual, while template swap (D) would
replace the entire day's structure.
2. When a patient is marked as "Deceased" in Epic, what is the immediate
system impact on future scheduled appointments?
A) All future appointments are automatically canceled and the patient is placed on
a Do Not Schedule list.
B) Future appointments remain but display a "Deceased" alert to schedulers.
C) The system automatically reschedules the patient under a new MRN.
D) Schedulers can still schedule new appointments but must get manager
approval.
Answer: A
Rationale: Epic automatically cancels all future scheduled appointments when a
patient's death date is entered and prevents new scheduling via a hard stop. It
does not merely alert (B) or require approval (D), and MRNs are never
automatically reassigned (C).
,3. What is the primary function of the "Scheduling Security" record for a user?
A) It defines the user's login password complexity.
B) It determines which specific schedule templates and resources a user can view
and edit.
C) It restricts the user from accessing the billing module.
D) It defines the user's hours for overtime pay.
Answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling Security records are the gateway that links a user or
provider to specific template names, controlling visibility and edit rights. Password
complexity (A) is handled by Authentication Security, not Scheduling Security.
4. You are creating a new Department Master File. Which of the following is a
required field before the department can be used for scheduling?
A) Department’s preferred snack vendor
B) Facility ID and Financial Class
C) Number of parking spaces available
D) CEO’s approval timestamp
Answer: B
Rationale: Every department must be linked to a Facility (for location hierarchy)
and a Financial Class (for billing and visit categorization) to function. The other
options are not required system fields.
5. A scheduler accidentally books a patient in the wrong department. They
cancel the appointment, but the slot does not become available for other
patients. What is the most likely cause?
A) The appointment was checked in before cancellation.
B) The "Remove Hold" function was not checked during cancellation.
C) The patient has a financial hold on their account.
D) The slot was an "Open" slot that only that patient could use.
,Answer: B
Rationale: In Epic scheduling, when you cancel, a "Remove Hold" checkbox
appears. If unchecked, the system keeps the slot blocked to prevent double-
booking, requiring manual release. Check-in status (A) does not block release
upon cancellation.
6. Which Epic reporting tool is most commonly used by AMB 400 administrators
to perform ad-hoc queries and analyze scheduling patterns across multiple
departments?
A) Text Utility
B) SliceDice
C) Clinical Reminders
D) Chronicles Search
Answer: B
Rationale: SliceDice is Epic's primary ad-hoc reporting tool that allows
administrators to create custom queries on scheduling, patient flow, and
utilization without needing programming skills. Text Utility (A) is for data
manipulation, not analytics.
7. What does the "Master Benefit Order" (MBO) control in the patient's chart?
A) The order in which providers appear in a referral list.
B) The sequence in which insurance plans are billed for a patient encounter.
C) The priority ranking for organ transplant recipients.
D) The order of medications listed on the patient's medication reconciliation.
Answer: B
Rationale: MBO dictates the financial liability hierarchy—primary, secondary,
tertiary payers—so billing knows which insurance to submit claims to first. It has
nothing to do with clinical order or referrals.
, 8. A user reports they cannot see any schedules despite being assigned to the
"Scheduler" security class. What is the first setting you should verify?
A) Their EpicCare login password.
B) Their Scheduling Profile and Departmental Security associations.
C) Their physical workstation's IP address.
D) Their employee termination date in HR.
Answer: B
Rationale: A user needs both a valid Scheduling Profile (defining which templates)
and Departmental Security (defining which departments) to view schedules.
Password (A) would prevent login entirely, not just schedule view.
9. You are performing a "Department Move" for a clinic. What data is preserved
during this process?
A) Only the physical address changes; all schedule templates are deleted.
B) Master File number, historical appointments, and schedule templates remain
intact.
C) All patient financial data is purged and restarted.
D) Only the tax ID changes; all other fields are locked.
Answer: B
Rationale: The "Move Department" tool is designed to retain the core Master File
number, historical appointment data, and complex templates while updating only
location/billing attributes. It does not delete or purge data.
10. A patient calls to reschedule their appointment. Instead of canceling and
rebooking, the scheduler uses the "Move" function. What is the primary
advantage of this?
A) It automatically updates the patient's insurance eligibility.
B) It retains all original appointment metadata, referrals, and authorizations
without creating a new encounter.
C) It deletes the old appointment permanently without a trace.
D) It automatically notifies the police of the patient's change of plans.
