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ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Actual Exam – Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI) – 2026/2027 Academic Year – Verified Questions and Answers for Practical Nursing Students and Candidates

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ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Actual Exam – Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI) – 2026/2027 Academic Year – Verified Questions and Answers for Practical Nursing Students and Candidates

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ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Actual Exam –
Assessment Technologies Institute (ATI) –
2026/2027 Academic Year – Verified Questions and
Answers for Practical Nursing Students and
Candidates

SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE & DELEGATION
Question 1:
A charge nurse is assigning staff for a shift. Which task should be delegated to a
Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)?
A) Performing the initial admission assessment on a client with pneumonia
B) Creating the plan of care for a client with a fractured hip
C) Administering an IV push antibiotic to a client with a central line
D) Administering a tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube
Answer: D) Administering a tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube
Rationale: LPNs can administer enteral feedings and monitor stable clients. Initial
assessments, care planning, and IV push medications (depending on state scope)
are typically reserved for RNs.
Question 2:
A nurse is preparing to delegate client care to an assistive personnel (AP). Which
information should the nurse verify prior to delegation?
A) The AP's years of experience
B) The client's length of facility stay
C) The client's age
D) The AP's job description

,Answer: D) The AP's job description
Rationale: The nurse must verify the AP's job description to ensure the task is
within their scope of practice. This is part of the "Right Person" component of the
Five Rights of Delegation.
Question 3:
A nurse is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should the
nurse assess FIRST?
A) A client with diabetes requesting pain medication for neuropathy
B) A client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum
C) A client who is post-op day 1 with new-onset confusion and BP 88/50
D) A client with a fractured tibia requesting help to the bathroom
Answer: C) A client who is post-op day 1 with new-onset confusion and BP 88/50
Rationale: New confusion combined with hypotension suggests possible sepsis,
hemorrhage, or shock—this is an unstable priority. Airway, breathing, and
circulation (ABC) precede stable complaints.
Question 4:
A nurse is discussing advance directives with a client who has terminal cancer.
Which statement should the nurse make?
A) "Your family can change your advance directives after you sign them."
B) "You can change your advance directives at any time."
C) "Once signed, advance directives cannot be changed."
D) "Advance directives only apply if you are hospitalized."
Answer: B) "You can change your advance directives at any time."
Rationale: Clients have the right to change or revoke their advance directives at
any time as long as they are mentally competent. Changes should be documented
in writing.


SECTION 2: SAFE & EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT

,Question 5:
A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which
guideline should the nurse include?
A) Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours
B) Document the client's condition every 15 minutes
C) Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails
D) Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive
Answer: B) Document the client's condition every 15 minutes
Rationale: Restrained clients require frequent monitoring and documentation
(every 15-30 minutes) for circulation, safety, and comfort. Restraints should never
be attached to side rails, and PRN orders for restraints are not permitted.
Question 6:
A nurse notes that a colleague administered the wrong medication to a client.
Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A) Report the colleague to the nursing supervisor
B) Assess the client for adverse effects
C) Complete an incident report
D) Discuss the error with the colleague privately
Answer: B) Assess the client for adverse effects
Rationale: Client safety is the priority. The nurse should first assess the client for
any adverse effects from the wrong medication before proceeding with reporting.
Question 7:
A client is scheduled for surgery and asks about advance directives. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "The hospital will assign a proxy for you if you cannot make decisions."
B) "You should discuss your wishes with your family and healthcare provider."
C) "Advance directives are not legally binding in most states."
D) "You should wait until after surgery to discuss advance directives."

, Answer: B) "You should discuss your wishes with your family and healthcare
provider."
Rationale: Nurses should encourage clients to discuss their wishes regarding end-
of-life care with family members and healthcare providers. Advance directives are
legally binding documents.


SECTION 3: PHARMACOLOGY & MEDICATION SAFETY
Question 8:
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
B) "I will eat a consistent amount of green leafy vegetables each week."
C) "I will take ibuprofen for my headache because acetaminophen is not strong
enough."
D) "I will have my INR checked regularly as scheduled."
Answer: C) "I will take ibuprofen for my headache because acetaminophen is
not strong enough."
Rationale: Ibuprofen (an NSAID) increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients on
anticoagulants.
Question 9:
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor most closely?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B) Potassium

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