CEN ACTUAL EXAM TEST PAPER FULL QUESTIONS CORRECT RESPONSES
CEN TEST BANK 2026/2027 EXAM Review WITH
Questions and Answers Verified Solutions Latest
Update
Question:
The patient is brought to the ED with an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). You
are assessing him for possible administration of fibrinolytics. An absolute contraindication for this
treatment is: a. The patient's pain is not relieved by medications. b. Symptoms began 36 hours
before arrival. c. The patient has received aspirin in the last 2 hours. d. The patient had a previous
MI 6 years ago.
Answer:
b. Symptoms began 36 hours before arrival. Fibrinolytic therapy is generally NOT recommended for
patients whose symptoms began more than 12 hours before arrival. Fibrinolytics should not be given
if the onset of symptoms was more than 24 hours before arrival UNLESS a posterior MI is
diagnosed. In this case, the MI was anterior.
Question:
The team is performing CPR on a patient. The rhythm that will respond to an electrical shock is: a.
Asystole b. PEA c. Ventricular fibrillation d. SVT.
Answer:
c. Ventricular fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are the two
rhythms that are considered to be "shockable" cardiac arrest rhythms. Although asystole and PEA
are cardiac arrest rhythms, they will not respond to electrical shock.
Question:
When suctioning during a cardiac arrest, suctioning should be limited to which of the following? a.
Less than 5 seconds b. Less than 10 seconds c. Less than 20 seconds d. Less than 30 seconds.
Answer:
b. Less than 10 seconds According to the 2010 BLS and ACLS guidelines, suctioning for longer
than 10 seconds may result in pulling too much oxygen out of the airways resulting in hypoxemia.
,Question:
Possible causes of cardiac arrest include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Hypervolemia b. Hypoxia
c. Hypokalemia d. Tension Pneumothorax.
Answer:
a. Hypervolemia Common causes of cardiac arrest are known as the H's and T's and include:
hypovolemia (NOT hypervolemia), hypoxia, hydrogen ion excess (acidosis), hypo or hyperkalemia,
hypothermia, tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, and thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary).
Correction of these causes can often reverse a cardiac arrest.
Question:
You are providing ventilations using a Bag-mask device. Suddenly, you do not see the patient's
chest rise with the ventilation. You reposition the patient to ensure an open airway. When you
attempt to ventilate, you do not see his chest rise. The most likely cause of this is: a. The bag-mask
device is faulty b. Airway obstruction c. The patient has suffered an MI d. Cardiac tamponade.
Answer:
b. Airway obstruction The most likely cause of the failure of the chest to rise during ventilations is
an airway obstruction. Although a faulty bag-mask device is a possibility, it is unlikely that it would
fail in the middle of providing ventilations.
Question:
According to American Heart Association ACLS guidelines, cricoid pressure during intubation: a.
Should be done in all cases. b. Is no longer recommended. c. Should only be done on children. d.
None of the above.
Answer:
b. Is no longer recommended. According to the most current AHA guidelines, cricoid pressure may
delay or prevent placement of an advanced airway so is no longer recommended.
Question:
You are providing positive pressure ventilation through an ET tube to a patient in respiratory
distress. Indications that you are ventilating too fast include all of the following EXCEPT: a.
Increasing waveform capnography readings b. Stomach insufflation c. Tension pneumothorax d.
, Aspiration.
Answer:
a. Increasing waveform capnography readings Latrogenic effects of hyperventilation through an ET
tube include aspiration, stomach insufflation, and tension pneumothorax. Increasing waveform
capnography readings are an indication of efficient CPR.
Question:
According to American Heart Association ACLS guidelines, when available, the best way to
confirm and maintain tracheal tube position is by: a. Clinical examination only. b. Quantitative
waveform capnography. c. Clinical examination and Pulse oximetry. d. Clinical examination and
quantitative waveform capnography.
Answer:
d. Clinical examination and quantitative waveform capnography. The AHA recommends continuous
waveform capnography and clinical examination to confirm and maintain ET tube position.
Question:
Signs of respiratory failure include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Bradypnea b. Diminished air
movement c. Decreased level of consciousness d. Nasal flaring and retractions.
Answer:
d. Nasal flaring and retractions Nasal flaring and retractions are signs of respiratory distress, not
respiratory failure. In respiratory failure, you will see decreased respiratory effort with late
bradypnea, diminished air movement, peripheral and central cyanosis, and decreased level of
consciousness.
Question:
Emergency Medical Service has brought a 24-year-old man to the ED with gunshot wounds to his
abdomen and left groin area. His blood pressure is 84/52 and heart rate is 120 per minute. His skin is
diaphoretic, cool, and pale. The treatment the nurse should prepare for is: a. Chest compressions b.
Endotracheal intubation c. Administration of verapamil d. Rapid administration of a crystalloid
solution.
Answer:
CEN TEST BANK 2026/2027 EXAM Review WITH
Questions and Answers Verified Solutions Latest
Update
Question:
The patient is brought to the ED with an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). You
are assessing him for possible administration of fibrinolytics. An absolute contraindication for this
treatment is: a. The patient's pain is not relieved by medications. b. Symptoms began 36 hours
before arrival. c. The patient has received aspirin in the last 2 hours. d. The patient had a previous
MI 6 years ago.
Answer:
b. Symptoms began 36 hours before arrival. Fibrinolytic therapy is generally NOT recommended for
patients whose symptoms began more than 12 hours before arrival. Fibrinolytics should not be given
if the onset of symptoms was more than 24 hours before arrival UNLESS a posterior MI is
diagnosed. In this case, the MI was anterior.
Question:
The team is performing CPR on a patient. The rhythm that will respond to an electrical shock is: a.
Asystole b. PEA c. Ventricular fibrillation d. SVT.
Answer:
c. Ventricular fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia are the two
rhythms that are considered to be "shockable" cardiac arrest rhythms. Although asystole and PEA
are cardiac arrest rhythms, they will not respond to electrical shock.
Question:
When suctioning during a cardiac arrest, suctioning should be limited to which of the following? a.
Less than 5 seconds b. Less than 10 seconds c. Less than 20 seconds d. Less than 30 seconds.
Answer:
b. Less than 10 seconds According to the 2010 BLS and ACLS guidelines, suctioning for longer
than 10 seconds may result in pulling too much oxygen out of the airways resulting in hypoxemia.
,Question:
Possible causes of cardiac arrest include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Hypervolemia b. Hypoxia
c. Hypokalemia d. Tension Pneumothorax.
Answer:
a. Hypervolemia Common causes of cardiac arrest are known as the H's and T's and include:
hypovolemia (NOT hypervolemia), hypoxia, hydrogen ion excess (acidosis), hypo or hyperkalemia,
hypothermia, tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, and thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary).
Correction of these causes can often reverse a cardiac arrest.
Question:
You are providing ventilations using a Bag-mask device. Suddenly, you do not see the patient's
chest rise with the ventilation. You reposition the patient to ensure an open airway. When you
attempt to ventilate, you do not see his chest rise. The most likely cause of this is: a. The bag-mask
device is faulty b. Airway obstruction c. The patient has suffered an MI d. Cardiac tamponade.
Answer:
b. Airway obstruction The most likely cause of the failure of the chest to rise during ventilations is
an airway obstruction. Although a faulty bag-mask device is a possibility, it is unlikely that it would
fail in the middle of providing ventilations.
Question:
According to American Heart Association ACLS guidelines, cricoid pressure during intubation: a.
Should be done in all cases. b. Is no longer recommended. c. Should only be done on children. d.
None of the above.
Answer:
b. Is no longer recommended. According to the most current AHA guidelines, cricoid pressure may
delay or prevent placement of an advanced airway so is no longer recommended.
Question:
You are providing positive pressure ventilation through an ET tube to a patient in respiratory
distress. Indications that you are ventilating too fast include all of the following EXCEPT: a.
Increasing waveform capnography readings b. Stomach insufflation c. Tension pneumothorax d.
, Aspiration.
Answer:
a. Increasing waveform capnography readings Latrogenic effects of hyperventilation through an ET
tube include aspiration, stomach insufflation, and tension pneumothorax. Increasing waveform
capnography readings are an indication of efficient CPR.
Question:
According to American Heart Association ACLS guidelines, when available, the best way to
confirm and maintain tracheal tube position is by: a. Clinical examination only. b. Quantitative
waveform capnography. c. Clinical examination and Pulse oximetry. d. Clinical examination and
quantitative waveform capnography.
Answer:
d. Clinical examination and quantitative waveform capnography. The AHA recommends continuous
waveform capnography and clinical examination to confirm and maintain ET tube position.
Question:
Signs of respiratory failure include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Bradypnea b. Diminished air
movement c. Decreased level of consciousness d. Nasal flaring and retractions.
Answer:
d. Nasal flaring and retractions Nasal flaring and retractions are signs of respiratory distress, not
respiratory failure. In respiratory failure, you will see decreased respiratory effort with late
bradypnea, diminished air movement, peripheral and central cyanosis, and decreased level of
consciousness.
Question:
Emergency Medical Service has brought a 24-year-old man to the ED with gunshot wounds to his
abdomen and left groin area. His blood pressure is 84/52 and heart rate is 120 per minute. His skin is
diaphoretic, cool, and pale. The treatment the nurse should prepare for is: a. Chest compressions b.
Endotracheal intubation c. Administration of verapamil d. Rapid administration of a crystalloid
solution.
Answer:
