AETNA INDIVIDUAL CORE CERTIFICATION EXAM AND PRACTICE TEST NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACTUAL EXAM| QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)

AETNA INDIVIDUAL CORE
CERTIFICATION EXAM AND PRACTICE
TEST NEWEST 2026/ 2027 ACTUAL
EXAM| QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY GRADED
A+ (MOST RECENT!!)



Aetna Individual Core Certification Practice Test
1. What reports are available on Aetna's Producer World?
A) Your Medicare book of business
B) Month/YTD/Prior year commission report
C) Licensing reports
D) A and B
E) All of the above

2. You will need to successfully complete which requirements
to have "ready-to-sell" status with Aetna Medicare?
A) The Aetna Individual Medicare certification process for the
products you intend to sell
B) Have an active contract through the Medicare Producer
Contracting site
C) Be licensed and appointed in accordance with state law
D) Pass a background investigation
E) All of the above

,3. Any voluntary disenrollment occurring within three months
of the membership effective date is considered a rapid
disenrollment, and will result in a chargeback of the full
commission paid.
True or False

4. To report compliance or fraud, waste, and abuse concerns
to Aetna you should:
A) Make an anonymous call to Ethics Line
B) Visit Ethics Line on the web
D) Email Medicare Compliance
E) A, B and D

5. Agent Oversight routinely monitors agent performance
against CMS and internal standards. We monitor:
A) Cancellation and rapid disenrollment rates
B) Enrollment application turnaround time
C) Scope of Appointment forms
D) Third party secret shopper surveillance program
E) Complaints and marketing incidents
F) Marketing/sales seminar reporting
G) All of the above

6. Our agent oversight team will implement corrective action
when there are CMS infractions. Disciplinary action may
include:
A) Focused training or monitoring sessions
B) Verbal or written warnings
C) Full re-training and re-testing
D) Placement on an agent "watch list"
E) Suspension or probationary period

,F) Contract termination
G) All of the above

7. A prohibited marketing event is:
A) Conducting health screenings that give the impression of
"cherry picking"
B) Requiring beneficiaries to provide contact information to
attend an event
C) Asking a beneficiary for a referral
D) Using superlative language like "the best" without CMS data
E) Claiming you are endorsed by CMS
F) All of the above

8. How long are you required to maintain Scope of
Appointment (SOA) documentation?
A) 2 years
B) 5 years
C) 10 years
D) Forever

9. The Permission-to-Contact form is used by Aetna sales
representatives and external agents to contact beneficiaries,
and must be completed prior to conducting an outbound call
to a Medicare prospect.
True or False

10. The Annual Election Period (AEP) is from:
A) Oct 1 - Dec 7
B) Oct 15 - Dec 15
C) Oct 15 - Dec 7
D) Oct 1 - Dec 15

, 11. A signed Medicare enrollment application must reach us
within two (2) calendar days of when you receive it from the
beneficiary.
True or False

12. You are prohibited from soliciting referral clients through
cold calling, door-to-door visits, or other actions prohibited
under state or federal law.
13. The Permission-to-Contact form is required when a
prospect calls in to RSVP for a meeting.
False or True

14. You may not contact your own clients by telephone and
plans may not contact current members by telephone at any
time to discuss plan business.
False or True

15. Producers may only use CMS and Aetna-approved
marketing materials that have been created by our marketing
team, approved by us and filed with CMS by us when
discussing Aetna Individual Medicare plans.
True or False

16. Every time you meet with beneficiaries to discuss
MA/MAPD Products, you must be Ready to Sell (RTS), use the
appropriate CMS-approved consumer sales presentation from
beginning to end, read the presentation notes or talking
points, and, if/when you use the MA/MAPD sales video, it
should be in conjunction with the approved sales
presentation.
True or False