NR601 / NR 601 FINAL EXAM QS & ANS (LATEST 2026 /
2027) : PRIMARY CARE OF THE MATURING & AGED
FAMILY PRACTICUM (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
NR601: Primary Care of the Maturing & Aged Family Practicum
Final Exam Practice Set (Latest )
Table of Contents
1. Section 1: Geriatric Assessment & Health Promotion (Questions 1-13)
2. Section 2: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 14-26)
3. Section 3: Pulmonary Disorders (Questions 27-39)
4. Section 4: Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders (Questions 40-52)
5. Section 5: Neuropsychiatric Disorders (The 3 Ds) (Questions 53-65)
6. Section 6: Musculoskeletal & Pain Management (Questions 66-78)
7. Section 7: Genitourinary & Gastrointestinal Disorders (Questions 79-91)
8. Section 8: Polypharmacy, Ethics, & Professional Practice (Questions 92-100)
Section 1: Geriatric Assessment & Health Promotion
1. What is the primary goal of the Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment (CGA)?
• Answer: To identify functional, cognitive, psychosocial, and medical problems to guide
individualized care planning.
• Rationale: Unlike a standard medical history, the CGA is multidimensional and
interdisciplinary, focusing on maximizing independence and quality of life rather than
just diagnosing acute illness.
2. Which assessment tool is most appropriate for evaluating a patient's ability to perform
Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)?
• Answer: Lawton IADL Scale.
• Rationale: IADLs measure more complex tasks required for independent living, such as
managing finances, shopping, and medication management, whereas the Katz Index
focuses on basic ADLs (bathing, dressing).
,3. An 82-year-old patient is being screened for frailty. Which finding constitutes one of
Fried’s Phenotype criteria?
• Answer: Unintentional weight loss of $\ge 10$ lbs in the past year.
• Rationale: Fried’s criteria include weight loss, exhaustion, low physical activity,
slowness (gait speed), and weakness (grip strength).
4. What is considered a "positive" finding on the Mini-Cog screen for dementia?
• Answer: A score of 0–2.
• Rationale: The Mini-Cog uses a 3-word recall and a clock-drawing test. A score of 0-2
indicates a high likelihood of cognitive impairment requiring further diagnostic workup.
5. Which vaccine is recommended for all adults aged 65 and older, regardless of prior
history?
• Answer: Recombinant Zoster Vaccine (Shingrix), 2-dose series.
• Rationale: Shingrix is recommended for adults $\ge 50$ to prevent shingles and post-
herpetic neuralgia, even if they previously received the live Zostavax vaccine.
6. For a 70-year-old patient with no history of pneumococcal vaccination, what is the
standard CDC recommendation?
• Answer: A single dose of PCV20 (or PCV15 followed by PPSV23).
• Rationale: Current guidelines favor the conjugate vaccines (PCV20) for simplified
protection in the vaccine-naive elderly.
7. "Ageism" in healthcare is most likely to lead to which negative outcome?
• Answer: Under-treatment of symptoms due to the belief they are "normal parts of aging."
• Rationale: Clinicians may dismiss complaints like pain or depression as inevitable,
leading to poor outcomes and decreased quality of life.
8. Which finding is considered a "normal" physiological change in the aging eye?
• Answer: Presbyopia (decreased lens elasticity).
• Rationale: Hardening of the lens leads to difficulty focusing on near objects, usually
beginning in the 40s and progressing with age.
9. What is the most common preventable cause of iatrogenic disease in the elderly?
• Answer: Adverse drug reactions (ADRs).
, • Rationale: Polypharmacy and age-related changes in pharmacokinetics (decreased renal
clearance) increase the risk of toxicity and drug-drug interactions.
10. A patient presents with "temporal wasting" and decreased handgrip strength. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
• Answer: Sarcopenia/Malnutrition.
• Rationale: Loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia) is a hallmark of frailty and poor nutritional
status in the elderly.
11. Secondary prevention for a 68-year-old female includes which of the following?
• Answer: Screening colonoscopy.
• Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of asymptomatic disease.
Immunizations are primary prevention.
12. When screening for alcohol misuse in the elderly, which tool is specifically validated?
• Answer: CAGE Questionnaire or SMAST-G.
• Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a brief, effective screen for identifying potential
alcohol dependency.
13. What is the leading cause of non-fatal injuries in adults over 65?
• Answer: Falls.
• Rationale: Falls lead to significant morbidity, including hip fractures and fear of falling,
which reduces mobility.
Section 2: Cardiovascular Disorders
14. According to 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the BP goal for a 75-year-old with
Diabetes?
• Answer: $< 130/80$ mmHg.
• Rationale: Aggressive control is recommended for those with comorbidities (DM, CKD)
to prevent target organ damage, provided the patient tolerates it without orthostasis.
15. Which stage of Heart Failure (HF) describes a patient with structural heart disease
(e.g., reduced EF) but no current or prior symptoms?
• Answer: Stage B.
• Rationale: Stage A is "at risk," Stage B is structural disease without symptoms, Stage C
is structural disease with current/prior symptoms, and Stage D is refractory HF.
2027) : PRIMARY CARE OF THE MATURING & AGED
FAMILY PRACTICUM (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
NR601: Primary Care of the Maturing & Aged Family Practicum
Final Exam Practice Set (Latest )
Table of Contents
1. Section 1: Geriatric Assessment & Health Promotion (Questions 1-13)
2. Section 2: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 14-26)
3. Section 3: Pulmonary Disorders (Questions 27-39)
4. Section 4: Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders (Questions 40-52)
5. Section 5: Neuropsychiatric Disorders (The 3 Ds) (Questions 53-65)
6. Section 6: Musculoskeletal & Pain Management (Questions 66-78)
7. Section 7: Genitourinary & Gastrointestinal Disorders (Questions 79-91)
8. Section 8: Polypharmacy, Ethics, & Professional Practice (Questions 92-100)
Section 1: Geriatric Assessment & Health Promotion
1. What is the primary goal of the Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment (CGA)?
• Answer: To identify functional, cognitive, psychosocial, and medical problems to guide
individualized care planning.
• Rationale: Unlike a standard medical history, the CGA is multidimensional and
interdisciplinary, focusing on maximizing independence and quality of life rather than
just diagnosing acute illness.
2. Which assessment tool is most appropriate for evaluating a patient's ability to perform
Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs)?
• Answer: Lawton IADL Scale.
• Rationale: IADLs measure more complex tasks required for independent living, such as
managing finances, shopping, and medication management, whereas the Katz Index
focuses on basic ADLs (bathing, dressing).
,3. An 82-year-old patient is being screened for frailty. Which finding constitutes one of
Fried’s Phenotype criteria?
• Answer: Unintentional weight loss of $\ge 10$ lbs in the past year.
• Rationale: Fried’s criteria include weight loss, exhaustion, low physical activity,
slowness (gait speed), and weakness (grip strength).
4. What is considered a "positive" finding on the Mini-Cog screen for dementia?
• Answer: A score of 0–2.
• Rationale: The Mini-Cog uses a 3-word recall and a clock-drawing test. A score of 0-2
indicates a high likelihood of cognitive impairment requiring further diagnostic workup.
5. Which vaccine is recommended for all adults aged 65 and older, regardless of prior
history?
• Answer: Recombinant Zoster Vaccine (Shingrix), 2-dose series.
• Rationale: Shingrix is recommended for adults $\ge 50$ to prevent shingles and post-
herpetic neuralgia, even if they previously received the live Zostavax vaccine.
6. For a 70-year-old patient with no history of pneumococcal vaccination, what is the
standard CDC recommendation?
• Answer: A single dose of PCV20 (or PCV15 followed by PPSV23).
• Rationale: Current guidelines favor the conjugate vaccines (PCV20) for simplified
protection in the vaccine-naive elderly.
7. "Ageism" in healthcare is most likely to lead to which negative outcome?
• Answer: Under-treatment of symptoms due to the belief they are "normal parts of aging."
• Rationale: Clinicians may dismiss complaints like pain or depression as inevitable,
leading to poor outcomes and decreased quality of life.
8. Which finding is considered a "normal" physiological change in the aging eye?
• Answer: Presbyopia (decreased lens elasticity).
• Rationale: Hardening of the lens leads to difficulty focusing on near objects, usually
beginning in the 40s and progressing with age.
9. What is the most common preventable cause of iatrogenic disease in the elderly?
• Answer: Adverse drug reactions (ADRs).
, • Rationale: Polypharmacy and age-related changes in pharmacokinetics (decreased renal
clearance) increase the risk of toxicity and drug-drug interactions.
10. A patient presents with "temporal wasting" and decreased handgrip strength. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
• Answer: Sarcopenia/Malnutrition.
• Rationale: Loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia) is a hallmark of frailty and poor nutritional
status in the elderly.
11. Secondary prevention for a 68-year-old female includes which of the following?
• Answer: Screening colonoscopy.
• Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of asymptomatic disease.
Immunizations are primary prevention.
12. When screening for alcohol misuse in the elderly, which tool is specifically validated?
• Answer: CAGE Questionnaire or SMAST-G.
• Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a brief, effective screen for identifying potential
alcohol dependency.
13. What is the leading cause of non-fatal injuries in adults over 65?
• Answer: Falls.
• Rationale: Falls lead to significant morbidity, including hip fractures and fear of falling,
which reduces mobility.
Section 2: Cardiovascular Disorders
14. According to 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the BP goal for a 75-year-old with
Diabetes?
• Answer: $< 130/80$ mmHg.
• Rationale: Aggressive control is recommended for those with comorbidities (DM, CKD)
to prevent target organ damage, provided the patient tolerates it without orthostasis.
15. Which stage of Heart Failure (HF) describes a patient with structural heart disease
(e.g., reduced EF) but no current or prior symptoms?
• Answer: Stage B.
• Rationale: Stage A is "at risk," Stage B is structural disease without symptoms, Stage C
is structural disease with current/prior symptoms, and Stage D is refractory HF.
