NGN ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE EXIT RETAKE EXAM (VERSIONS 1–4) – COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+...
Core Domains:
- Fundamentals of Nursing
- Medical-Surgical Nursing
- Maternal-Newborn Nursing
- Pediatric Nursing
- Mental Health Nursing
- Pharmacology
- Leadership, Management, and Professional Standards
- Community Health Nursing
This NGN ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Retake Exam integrates all major content areas tested on the NCLEX-RN
and ATI Comprehensive Predictor. The 100-question multiple-choice and scenario-based assessment evaluates
clinical reasoning, nursing judgment, and the ability to prioritize and delegate care safely. Questions emphasize
real-world clinical decision-making, application of evidence-based practice, ethical and legal principles, and
management of diverse patient populations across the lifespan. Designed to mirror the rigor of the actual exit
exam, this resource is essential for identifying knowledge gaps and ensuring readiness for licensure and
professional practice.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
,1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-operative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Pain rated 4 out of 10 at the surgical site
B. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
🟢 Correct Answer: Sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain
D. Temperature of 99.1°F (37.3°C)
🔴 RATIONALE: Sudden dyspnea and chest pain post-orthopedic surgery may indicate a pulmonary
embolism, a life-threatening complication. Pain and mild temperature are expected; serosanguineous
drainage is common.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would
cause the nurse to hold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
B. Blood pressure 128/78 mm Hg
🟢 Correct Answer: Apical pulse 54 beats per minute
D. Respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute
🔴 RATIONALE: Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is below 60 bpm (or per specific order) due to the
risk of bradycardia and toxicity. The other findings are within normal limits.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via
nasal cannula. The client becomes drowsy and the respiratory rate drops to 8 breaths/min. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min
🟢 Correct Answer: Decrease the oxygen flow rate and notify the provider
C. Position the client supine
D. Administer a bronchodilator immediately
, 🔴 RATIONALE: In COPD, high oxygen levels can suppress the hypoxic drive, leading to CO2 retention and
somnolence. The nurse should reduce oxygen to maintain SpO2 between 88-92% and notify the provider.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who is starting warfarin therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need
for further teaching?
A. “I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.”
B. “I will keep my appointments for INR checks.”
🟢 Correct Answer: “I can take aspirin for headaches anytime because it’s over-the-counter.”
D. “I will report any unusual bruising to my doctor.”
🔴 RATIONALE: Aspirin and other NSAIDs increase bleeding risk and should be avoided unless specifically
prescribed. The other statements reflect correct understanding.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to water-seal drainage. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in
the water-seal chamber. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Clamp the chest tube near the insertion site
B. Add more sterile water to the chamber
🟢 Correct Answer: Check the tubing and connections for an air leak
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
🔴 RATIONALE: Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak. The nurse should first locate the leak by checking
connections and tightening them, then notify the provider if the leak persists. Clamping is dangerous.
6. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL. Which symptoms would the
nurse expect?
A. Fruity breath and Kussmaul respirations
B. Polyuria and polydipsia
🟢 Correct Answer: Diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion
D. Dry skin and deep rapid breathing
, 🔴 RATIONALE: Hypoglycemia triggers autonomic symptoms (sweating, tremors) and neuroglycopenic
symptoms (confusion). The other options describe hyperglycemia/DKA.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who is 32 weeks pregnant. Which finding should be reported immediately?
A. Fundal height of 30 cm
B. Mild ankle edema
🟢 Correct Answer: Severe headache with visual disturbances
D. Fetal heart rate of 150 bpm
🔴 RATIONALE: Severe headache and visual changes may indicate preeclampsia, a serious complication
requiring immediate evaluation. The other findings can be normal variations.
8. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which instruction
should the nurse include?
A. “You may resume a high-fat, unrestricted diet immediately.”
B. “Change the surgical dressings every 2 hours.”
🟢 Correct Answer: “Report any signs of bile leakage, such as yellow-green drainage from the incision.”
D. “Avoid showering for 4 weeks.”
🔴 RATIONALE: Bile leakage is a possible complication; the client must be taught to recognize and report it.
A low-fat diet is initially recommended; dressings are changed as ordered; showering is usually permitted
sooner.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which solution is the only one compatible for priming
the IV tubing?
A. Lactated Ringer’s
B. Dextrose 5% in water
🟢 Correct Answer: 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline)
D. Dextrose 5% in 0.45% saline
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+...
Core Domains:
- Fundamentals of Nursing
- Medical-Surgical Nursing
- Maternal-Newborn Nursing
- Pediatric Nursing
- Mental Health Nursing
- Pharmacology
- Leadership, Management, and Professional Standards
- Community Health Nursing
This NGN ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Retake Exam integrates all major content areas tested on the NCLEX-RN
and ATI Comprehensive Predictor. The 100-question multiple-choice and scenario-based assessment evaluates
clinical reasoning, nursing judgment, and the ability to prioritize and delegate care safely. Questions emphasize
real-world clinical decision-making, application of evidence-based practice, ethical and legal principles, and
management of diverse patient populations across the lifespan. Designed to mirror the rigor of the actual exit
exam, this resource is essential for identifying knowledge gaps and ensuring readiness for licensure and
professional practice.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
,1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-operative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Pain rated 4 out of 10 at the surgical site
B. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
🟢 Correct Answer: Sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain
D. Temperature of 99.1°F (37.3°C)
🔴 RATIONALE: Sudden dyspnea and chest pain post-orthopedic surgery may indicate a pulmonary
embolism, a life-threatening complication. Pain and mild temperature are expected; serosanguineous
drainage is common.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would
cause the nurse to hold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
B. Blood pressure 128/78 mm Hg
🟢 Correct Answer: Apical pulse 54 beats per minute
D. Respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute
🔴 RATIONALE: Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is below 60 bpm (or per specific order) due to the
risk of bradycardia and toxicity. The other findings are within normal limits.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via
nasal cannula. The client becomes drowsy and the respiratory rate drops to 8 breaths/min. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min
🟢 Correct Answer: Decrease the oxygen flow rate and notify the provider
C. Position the client supine
D. Administer a bronchodilator immediately
, 🔴 RATIONALE: In COPD, high oxygen levels can suppress the hypoxic drive, leading to CO2 retention and
somnolence. The nurse should reduce oxygen to maintain SpO2 between 88-92% and notify the provider.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who is starting warfarin therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need
for further teaching?
A. “I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.”
B. “I will keep my appointments for INR checks.”
🟢 Correct Answer: “I can take aspirin for headaches anytime because it’s over-the-counter.”
D. “I will report any unusual bruising to my doctor.”
🔴 RATIONALE: Aspirin and other NSAIDs increase bleeding risk and should be avoided unless specifically
prescribed. The other statements reflect correct understanding.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to water-seal drainage. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in
the water-seal chamber. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Clamp the chest tube near the insertion site
B. Add more sterile water to the chamber
🟢 Correct Answer: Check the tubing and connections for an air leak
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
🔴 RATIONALE: Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak. The nurse should first locate the leak by checking
connections and tightening them, then notify the provider if the leak persists. Clamping is dangerous.
6. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL. Which symptoms would the
nurse expect?
A. Fruity breath and Kussmaul respirations
B. Polyuria and polydipsia
🟢 Correct Answer: Diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion
D. Dry skin and deep rapid breathing
, 🔴 RATIONALE: Hypoglycemia triggers autonomic symptoms (sweating, tremors) and neuroglycopenic
symptoms (confusion). The other options describe hyperglycemia/DKA.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who is 32 weeks pregnant. Which finding should be reported immediately?
A. Fundal height of 30 cm
B. Mild ankle edema
🟢 Correct Answer: Severe headache with visual disturbances
D. Fetal heart rate of 150 bpm
🔴 RATIONALE: Severe headache and visual changes may indicate preeclampsia, a serious complication
requiring immediate evaluation. The other findings can be normal variations.
8. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which instruction
should the nurse include?
A. “You may resume a high-fat, unrestricted diet immediately.”
B. “Change the surgical dressings every 2 hours.”
🟢 Correct Answer: “Report any signs of bile leakage, such as yellow-green drainage from the incision.”
D. “Avoid showering for 4 weeks.”
🔴 RATIONALE: Bile leakage is a possible complication; the client must be taught to recognize and report it.
A low-fat diet is initially recommended; dressings are changed as ordered; showering is usually permitted
sooner.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which solution is the only one compatible for priming
the IV tubing?
A. Lactated Ringer’s
B. Dextrose 5% in water
🟢 Correct Answer: 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline)
D. Dextrose 5% in 0.45% saline
