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NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Maternal Final Exam V1-V3 Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded

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NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Maternal Final Exam 3 Versions Actual Exam 2026/2027 Rasmussen – Real-Style Exam Questions | 100% Correct Answers | Antepartum | Intrapartum | Postpartum | Newborn Care | Complications | Detailed Rationales | Graded A+ Verified | Pass Guaranteed – Instant Download

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NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Maternal Final Exam V1-V3 Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%

Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded




Version A




Antepartum Care (12 Questions)




Q1: A 28-year-old pregnant patient at 10 weeks gestation asks the nurse about expected
cardiovascular changes. Which physiological adaptation should the nurse include in the
teaching?


A. Cardiac output decreases by 10% to reduce strain on the heart


B. Blood pressure increases significantly due to increased blood volume


C. Cardiac output increases by 30–50% and heart rate rises slightly by 10–15 bpm
[CORRECT]

,D. Blood volume decreases to accommodate the growing fetus


Correct Answer: C


Rationale: Cardiac output increases 30–50% during pregnancy due to increased stroke
volume and a modest rise in heart rate. Blood volume increases 40–50%, but blood
pressure typically drops due to vasodilation. Options A and D are incorrect; B
contradicts normal hemodynamic changes.




Q2: A pregnant patient at 16 weeks asks the nurse when she should feel fetal
movement. Which response is most accurate?


A. "Most patients feel movement by 8 weeks."


B. "Quickening is typically felt between 16 and 20 weeks." [CORRECT]


C. "Fetal movement is not felt until the third trimester."


D. "You will feel movement at exactly 12 weeks."


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, usually occurs between
16 and 20 weeks in primigravidas and may be felt slightly earlier in multigravidas.
Option A is too early; C is too late; D is an inaccurate absolute statement.

,Q3: A nurse is teaching a pregnant patient about nutritional requirements. How many
additional calories per day are recommended during the second trimester?


A. No additional calories are needed


B. 340 additional calories per day [CORRECT]


C. 452 additional calories per day


D. 500 additional calories per day


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: The Institute of Medicine recommends approximately 340 additional calories
per day during the second trimester and 452 during the third. Option A is insufficient; C
is the third-trimester recommendation; D exceeds standard guidelines.




Q4: A pregnant patient at 20 weeks reports severe headache, visual disturbances, and
epigastric pain. Which action should the nurse take first?


A. Reassure the patient these are normal second-trimester discomforts


B. Assess blood pressure and notify the provider immediately [CORRECT]

, C. Administer acetaminophen and recommend rest


D. Schedule a routine prenatal appointment for next week


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain are danger signs of
preeclampsia requiring immediate assessment and provider notification. Options A, C,
and D delay critical evaluation of a potentially life-threatening condition.




Q5: During a prenatal visit, a patient at 24 weeks asks about the purpose of the glucose
tolerance test. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?


A. "It screens for gestational diabetes by evaluating how your body processes glucose."
[CORRECT]


B. "It checks for anemia by measuring your blood sugar levels."


C. "It determines if your baby has Down syndrome."


D. "It assesses your kidney function during pregnancy."


Correct Answer: A

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