NR 667 FNP FINAL EXAM PREP
WITH A REVIEW OF LATEST
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
151 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NR 667 FNP FINAL EXAM PREP WITH A REVIEW OF LATEST QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
NR667 FNP CAPSTONE PRACTICUM AND INTENSIVE FINAL EXAM PREP (NEW!). It contains 151 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning
required to master the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 151 Questions
Foundations - Application - NR 667 FNP PREP WITH A Review OF AND Correct Nr667 FNP Capstone
Practicum AND Intensive PREP NEW Family Nurse Practitioner FNP Capstone Practicum Graduate
Masters/doctoral
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Health Promotion AND Section B - Acute AND Chronic CARE
Disease Prevention Management
Questions 1 to 38 Questions 39 to 76
Section C - Pharmacology AND Section D - Diagnostic Reasoning
Therapeutic Management AND Clinical Decision-making
Questions 77 to 114 Questions 115 to 151
,Section A - Health Promotion AND Disease Prevention
Q1.
A 45-year-old with stage 3 chronic kidney disease (eGFR 35 mL/min) and hypertension is
currently on lisinopril 40 mg daily and amlodipine 5 mg daily. Blood pressure is 148/92
mmHg. Which antihypertensive agent is most appropriate to add next?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily B. Chlorthalidone 12.5 mg daily
C. Furosemide 40 mg twice daily D. Spironolactone 12.5 mg daily
Correct: B - Chlorthalidone 12.5 mg daily
Rationale:
Chlorthalidone is preferred over HCTZ in CKD due to stronger evidence for cardiovascular
protection, and at eGFR <45, thiazides become less effective but still used. Furosemide is
reserved for volume overload. Spironolactone increases hyperkalemia risk with lisinopril.
Q2.
A 58-year-old with type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 8.2%, eGFR 42 mL/min) is on metformin, insulin
glargine, and dulaglutide. HbA1c remains above target. Which insulin adjustment is most
appropriate while minimizing hypoglycemia?
A. Increase insulin glargine by 2 units every B. Add preprandial insulin lispro starting at 4
3 days until fasting glucose <130 mg/dL units before largest meal
C. Increase dulaglutide to the next dose D. Discontinue metformin and switch to
level and add sitagliptin insulin degludec
Correct: B - Add preprandial insulin lispro starting at 4 units before largest meal
Rationale:
Given HbA1c >8% and already on basal insulin and GLP-1, adding prandial insulin is
recommended. Starting lispro before the largest meal is a common step to target postprandial
hyperglycemia. Option A may cause nocturnal hypoglycemia. Dulaglutide dose increase is
limited; adding sitagliptin is not indicated with GLP-1. Metformin is safe at eGFR >30.
Q3.
A 32-year-old woman presents with 8 weeks of intermenstrual spotting and occasional
pelvic pressure. She has a BMI of 38 and no other symptoms. Transvaginal ultrasound
shows a 3.5 cm heterogeneous endometrial mass. Endometrial biopsy reports complex
atypical hyperplasia. What is the next best step?
A. Repeat biopsy in 6 months after progestin B. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine
therapy device plus surveillance
Page 3
, Section A - Health Promotion AND Disease Prevention
C. Total laparoscopic hysterectomy with D. Endometrial ablation and continued
bilateral salpingectomy monitoring
Correct: C - Total laparoscopic hysterectomy with bilateral salpingectomy
Rationale:
Complex atypical hyperplasia carries a high risk of concurrent endometrial carcinoma (up to
40%). Definitive surgical management is recommended in patients who do not desire fertility,
especially with risk factors like obesity. Progestin therapy is reserved for women pursuing
fertility. Endometrial ablation is contraindicated when malignancy is suspected.
Q4.
A 6-month-old infant presents with a 4-day history of fever (max 39.1°C), nonbilious
vomiting, and increasing irritability. A urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase and
nitrites, with >50 WBCs/hpf. What is the next best step in management after obtaining
urine culture?
A. Start oral cephalexin and schedule B. Initiate intravenous ceftriaxone and admit
outpatient follow-up for parenteral antibiotics
C. Perform a renal ultrasound now and start D. Wait for culture results before initiating
oral amoxicillin-clavulanate antibiotics
Correct: B - Initiate intravenous ceftriaxone and admit for parenteral antibiotics
Rationale:
This infant under 2 months with high fever, vomiting, and UTI symptoms is at risk for
pyelonephritis and bacteremia. Immediate initiation of parenteral antibiotics after culture is
standard to prevent renal scarring. Oral therapy is reserved for older children with mild illness.
Renal imaging should be done after treatment. Delaying antibiotics is unsafe.
Q5.
A 37-year-old without known medical history presents with sudden onset of severe right
flank pain radiating to the groin, nausea, and hematuria. CT shows a 6 mm ureterovesical
junction stone with mild hydronephrosis. What is the most appropriate initial
management?
A. Lithotripsy on the same day B. Tamsulosin 0.4 mg daily and reassess in
2 weeks
C. Refer for urgent ureteroscopy with stone D. Prescribe opioids and nonsteroidal
removal anti-inflammatory drugs and discharge
Correct: B - Tamsulosin 0.4 mg daily and reassess in 2 weeks
Page 4
WITH A REVIEW OF LATEST
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
151 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NR 667 FNP FINAL EXAM PREP WITH A REVIEW OF LATEST QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
NR667 FNP CAPSTONE PRACTICUM AND INTENSIVE FINAL EXAM PREP (NEW!). It contains 151 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning
required to master the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 151 Questions
Foundations - Application - NR 667 FNP PREP WITH A Review OF AND Correct Nr667 FNP Capstone
Practicum AND Intensive PREP NEW Family Nurse Practitioner FNP Capstone Practicum Graduate
Masters/doctoral
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Health Promotion AND Section B - Acute AND Chronic CARE
Disease Prevention Management
Questions 1 to 38 Questions 39 to 76
Section C - Pharmacology AND Section D - Diagnostic Reasoning
Therapeutic Management AND Clinical Decision-making
Questions 77 to 114 Questions 115 to 151
,Section A - Health Promotion AND Disease Prevention
Q1.
A 45-year-old with stage 3 chronic kidney disease (eGFR 35 mL/min) and hypertension is
currently on lisinopril 40 mg daily and amlodipine 5 mg daily. Blood pressure is 148/92
mmHg. Which antihypertensive agent is most appropriate to add next?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily B. Chlorthalidone 12.5 mg daily
C. Furosemide 40 mg twice daily D. Spironolactone 12.5 mg daily
Correct: B - Chlorthalidone 12.5 mg daily
Rationale:
Chlorthalidone is preferred over HCTZ in CKD due to stronger evidence for cardiovascular
protection, and at eGFR <45, thiazides become less effective but still used. Furosemide is
reserved for volume overload. Spironolactone increases hyperkalemia risk with lisinopril.
Q2.
A 58-year-old with type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 8.2%, eGFR 42 mL/min) is on metformin, insulin
glargine, and dulaglutide. HbA1c remains above target. Which insulin adjustment is most
appropriate while minimizing hypoglycemia?
A. Increase insulin glargine by 2 units every B. Add preprandial insulin lispro starting at 4
3 days until fasting glucose <130 mg/dL units before largest meal
C. Increase dulaglutide to the next dose D. Discontinue metformin and switch to
level and add sitagliptin insulin degludec
Correct: B - Add preprandial insulin lispro starting at 4 units before largest meal
Rationale:
Given HbA1c >8% and already on basal insulin and GLP-1, adding prandial insulin is
recommended. Starting lispro before the largest meal is a common step to target postprandial
hyperglycemia. Option A may cause nocturnal hypoglycemia. Dulaglutide dose increase is
limited; adding sitagliptin is not indicated with GLP-1. Metformin is safe at eGFR >30.
Q3.
A 32-year-old woman presents with 8 weeks of intermenstrual spotting and occasional
pelvic pressure. She has a BMI of 38 and no other symptoms. Transvaginal ultrasound
shows a 3.5 cm heterogeneous endometrial mass. Endometrial biopsy reports complex
atypical hyperplasia. What is the next best step?
A. Repeat biopsy in 6 months after progestin B. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine
therapy device plus surveillance
Page 3
, Section A - Health Promotion AND Disease Prevention
C. Total laparoscopic hysterectomy with D. Endometrial ablation and continued
bilateral salpingectomy monitoring
Correct: C - Total laparoscopic hysterectomy with bilateral salpingectomy
Rationale:
Complex atypical hyperplasia carries a high risk of concurrent endometrial carcinoma (up to
40%). Definitive surgical management is recommended in patients who do not desire fertility,
especially with risk factors like obesity. Progestin therapy is reserved for women pursuing
fertility. Endometrial ablation is contraindicated when malignancy is suspected.
Q4.
A 6-month-old infant presents with a 4-day history of fever (max 39.1°C), nonbilious
vomiting, and increasing irritability. A urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase and
nitrites, with >50 WBCs/hpf. What is the next best step in management after obtaining
urine culture?
A. Start oral cephalexin and schedule B. Initiate intravenous ceftriaxone and admit
outpatient follow-up for parenteral antibiotics
C. Perform a renal ultrasound now and start D. Wait for culture results before initiating
oral amoxicillin-clavulanate antibiotics
Correct: B - Initiate intravenous ceftriaxone and admit for parenteral antibiotics
Rationale:
This infant under 2 months with high fever, vomiting, and UTI symptoms is at risk for
pyelonephritis and bacteremia. Immediate initiation of parenteral antibiotics after culture is
standard to prevent renal scarring. Oral therapy is reserved for older children with mild illness.
Renal imaging should be done after treatment. Delaying antibiotics is unsafe.
Q5.
A 37-year-old without known medical history presents with sudden onset of severe right
flank pain radiating to the groin, nausea, and hematuria. CT shows a 6 mm ureterovesical
junction stone with mild hydronephrosis. What is the most appropriate initial
management?
A. Lithotripsy on the same day B. Tamsulosin 0.4 mg daily and reassess in
2 weeks
C. Refer for urgent ureteroscopy with stone D. Prescribe opioids and nonsteroidal
removal anti-inflammatory drugs and discharge
Correct: B - Tamsulosin 0.4 mg daily and reassess in 2 weeks
Page 4
