EMD COURSE V14 Exam SCRIPT 2026/2027
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS RATED A+
• During Case Entry question #3, the caller reports her son is at the bottom of the
swimming pool. What should the EMD do next? -✓✓ c. Dispatch 14-E-2, read PDI
A and D, then return to questioning
• A caller is reporting a construction worker fell off the roof of a commercial
building. The caller estimates the patient fell approximately 35 feet. The patient is
awake and breathing, with multiple fractures and SERIOUS bleeding. What is the
correct determinant code? -✓✓ b. 17-D-1
• A caller is reporting a fight in the school yard. One victim was hit in the head and
is now unconscious. In Protocol 4, how many Key Questions are you asking? -✓✓
c. Four. After initiating dispatch, you will return to ask Key Questions 1 thru 4
before going to PDI's and DLS links.
• A caller is reporting a shooting. The suspect has left the scene and the caller is
caring for the single victim who was shot once in the chest. The patient is
completely alert but having difficulty breathing. The caller also reports there is
SERIOUS bleeding. What is the appropriate determinant code? -✓✓ c. 27-D-4
• A caller reports a tiger got loose from its cage at the zoo and has attacked a
patron. The caller was able to run into a bathroom to hide but can hear both the
victim and the tiger still outside. Which PDI's would you give? -✓✓ a. PDI A and
PDI B
• If the complaint description appears to be TRAUMA in nature, the EMD should
choose the protocol that: -✓✓ a. Best addresses the mechanism of injury
,• An alert, first-party caller reports that he was just bitten by a rattlesnake. What is
the best Chief Complaint Protocol? -✓✓ a. 2: Allergies
(Reactions)/Envenomations (Stings, Bites)
• Pre-Arrival Instructions (PAIs) must be read: -✓✓ a. exactly as written.
• The head-tilt is the only recognized method of airway control in the PAI dispatch
environment. -✓✓ a. True
• In response to Key Question 1a on Protocol 12, the caller reports that the 14-year-
old patient was not alert between seizures. What should you do next? -✓✓ d.
Initiate a 12-D-2 response, provide all appropriate PDIs, and then return to
questioning.
• In response to Case Entry Question 3, the caller reports that her 16-year-old
brother is on fire. What should you do next? -✓✓ c. Initiate a 7-E-1 response,
provide Case Entry PDIs a and h, and return to questioning.
• A second-party caller reports that his 8-year-old sister is currently having what
appears to be a GENERALIZED seizure. The patient is not awake and not
breathing. What is the best Chief Complaint Protocol? -✓✓ c. 12:
Convulsions/Seizures
• Pre-Arrival Instructions should always be given, regardless if there is a scene
safety concern. -✓✓ b. False
• During Case Entry, the caller indicates the patient is awake, but having
INEFFECTIVE BREATHING. In Protocol 6, Key Question #1, the caller indicates
, the patient is not completely alert. What should the EMD do next? -✓✓ c. Shunt to
Key Questions #4 and #5
• Caller reports a patient has been bitten on their foot by a snake. The patient is
awake and breathing normally with no other symptoms. What is the appropriate
determinant code? -✓✓ b. 2-D-4
• If an AED is a long way from the scene, the EMD should begin CPR instructions
(BC-4) and return to Protocol Z when the AED arrives. -✓✓ a. True
• Which Pre-Arrival Protocol would you use for an unconscious, adult choking
victim? -✓✓ b. Protocol C
• While providing CPR instructions via Protocol C to an adult cardiac arrest victim,
the caller reports the patient vomits just after the instructions from panel 8 were
successfully given. What should the EMD do next? -✓✓ b. Read the instructions
from panel 15, then return to sequence
• Post-Dispatch Instructions will be read as scripted but may be enhanced with a
situational or conditional statement as long as the meaning or intent of the
instruction is kept intact. -✓✓ a. True
• A question with the pre-question qualifier of female 12- 50 should be asked -✓✓
only when the caller reports that the patient is a female between the ages of 12 and
50
• Key questions must be asked in in order as written -✓✓ True
QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS RATED A+
• During Case Entry question #3, the caller reports her son is at the bottom of the
swimming pool. What should the EMD do next? -✓✓ c. Dispatch 14-E-2, read PDI
A and D, then return to questioning
• A caller is reporting a construction worker fell off the roof of a commercial
building. The caller estimates the patient fell approximately 35 feet. The patient is
awake and breathing, with multiple fractures and SERIOUS bleeding. What is the
correct determinant code? -✓✓ b. 17-D-1
• A caller is reporting a fight in the school yard. One victim was hit in the head and
is now unconscious. In Protocol 4, how many Key Questions are you asking? -✓✓
c. Four. After initiating dispatch, you will return to ask Key Questions 1 thru 4
before going to PDI's and DLS links.
• A caller is reporting a shooting. The suspect has left the scene and the caller is
caring for the single victim who was shot once in the chest. The patient is
completely alert but having difficulty breathing. The caller also reports there is
SERIOUS bleeding. What is the appropriate determinant code? -✓✓ c. 27-D-4
• A caller reports a tiger got loose from its cage at the zoo and has attacked a
patron. The caller was able to run into a bathroom to hide but can hear both the
victim and the tiger still outside. Which PDI's would you give? -✓✓ a. PDI A and
PDI B
• If the complaint description appears to be TRAUMA in nature, the EMD should
choose the protocol that: -✓✓ a. Best addresses the mechanism of injury
,• An alert, first-party caller reports that he was just bitten by a rattlesnake. What is
the best Chief Complaint Protocol? -✓✓ a. 2: Allergies
(Reactions)/Envenomations (Stings, Bites)
• Pre-Arrival Instructions (PAIs) must be read: -✓✓ a. exactly as written.
• The head-tilt is the only recognized method of airway control in the PAI dispatch
environment. -✓✓ a. True
• In response to Key Question 1a on Protocol 12, the caller reports that the 14-year-
old patient was not alert between seizures. What should you do next? -✓✓ d.
Initiate a 12-D-2 response, provide all appropriate PDIs, and then return to
questioning.
• In response to Case Entry Question 3, the caller reports that her 16-year-old
brother is on fire. What should you do next? -✓✓ c. Initiate a 7-E-1 response,
provide Case Entry PDIs a and h, and return to questioning.
• A second-party caller reports that his 8-year-old sister is currently having what
appears to be a GENERALIZED seizure. The patient is not awake and not
breathing. What is the best Chief Complaint Protocol? -✓✓ c. 12:
Convulsions/Seizures
• Pre-Arrival Instructions should always be given, regardless if there is a scene
safety concern. -✓✓ b. False
• During Case Entry, the caller indicates the patient is awake, but having
INEFFECTIVE BREATHING. In Protocol 6, Key Question #1, the caller indicates
, the patient is not completely alert. What should the EMD do next? -✓✓ c. Shunt to
Key Questions #4 and #5
• Caller reports a patient has been bitten on their foot by a snake. The patient is
awake and breathing normally with no other symptoms. What is the appropriate
determinant code? -✓✓ b. 2-D-4
• If an AED is a long way from the scene, the EMD should begin CPR instructions
(BC-4) and return to Protocol Z when the AED arrives. -✓✓ a. True
• Which Pre-Arrival Protocol would you use for an unconscious, adult choking
victim? -✓✓ b. Protocol C
• While providing CPR instructions via Protocol C to an adult cardiac arrest victim,
the caller reports the patient vomits just after the instructions from panel 8 were
successfully given. What should the EMD do next? -✓✓ b. Read the instructions
from panel 15, then return to sequence
• Post-Dispatch Instructions will be read as scripted but may be enhanced with a
situational or conditional statement as long as the meaning or intent of the
instruction is kept intact. -✓✓ a. True
• A question with the pre-question qualifier of female 12- 50 should be asked -✓✓
only when the caller reports that the patient is a female between the ages of 12 and
50
• Key questions must be asked in in order as written -✓✓ True
