MATERNITY PRACTICE QUESTIONS EXAM 1 | COMPLETE MATERNAL-NEWBORN
NURSING STUDY GUIDE, PRACTICE TEST, AND EXAM REVIEW 2026/2027
The nurse is teaching a couple about the pros and cons of genetic testing. Which statement by
the nurse best describes the limits of genetic testing?
A. "Various genetic tests help the primary care provider choose appropriate treatments."
B. "Genetic testing helps couples avoid having children with fatal diseases."
C. "Genetic tests identify people at high risk for preventable conditions."
D. "Some genetic tests can give a probability for developing a disorder." - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: The fact that some tests only provide a probability for developing a disorder raises a problem.
A serious limitation of these susceptibility tests is that some people who carry a disease-associated
mutation never develop the disease. Choosing appropriate treatments,
avoiding having children with fatal diseases, and identifying those at high risk affirm the value of genetic
tests.
The nurse is counseling a couple who suspect that they could bear a child with a genetic abnormality.
What would be most important for the nurse to do when working with this family?
A. Gather information for three generations.
B. Inform the family of the need for information.
C. Maintain the confidentiality of the information.
D. Present the information in a factual, nondirective manner. - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: It is essential to respect client autonomy and present information in a factual, nondirective
manner. In these situations, the nurse needs to understand that the choice is the couple's to make.
Gathering information for three generations obtains a broad overview of what
has been seen in both sides of the family. Maintaining confidentiality of the information is as important
as with any other client information gathered. Informing the family of the need for
information is necessary because of its personal nature.
The nurse is teaching a couple about X-linked disorders because they are concerned that they
might pass on hemophilia to their children. Which response indicates the need for further teaching?
A. "The father can't be a carrier if he doesn't have hemophilia."
B. "If the father doesn't have it, then his kids won't either."
C. "If the mother is a carrier, her daughter could be one too."
D. "If the mother is a carrier, her sons will have hemophilia." - ✔✔Answer: B
Rationale: Males are more affected than females. A male has only one X chromosome, and all the genes
on his X chromosome will be expressed whereas a female will usually need both X chromosomes to carry
the disease. There is no male-to-male transmission (since no X chromosome from the male is
transmitted to male offspring), but any man who is affected will have carrier daughters. If a woman is a
carrier, there is a 50% chance that her sons will be affected and a 50% chance that her daughters will be
carriers.
A pregnant woman undergoes a triple screen at 16 to 18 weeks' gestation. What would the nurse
suspect if the woman's estriol and alpha fetoprotein levels are decreased with high hCG
levels?
A. Down syndrome
B. sickle-cell anemia
,C. cardiac defects
D. respiratory disorders - ✔✔Answer: A
Rationale: Decreased levels might indicate Down syndrome or trisomy 18. Sickle cell anemia may be
identified by chorionic villus sampling. Levels would be increased with cardiac defects, such as tetralogy
of Fallot. It does not detect respiratory disorders.
The nurse is conducting a presentation for a young adult community group about fetal development and
pregnancy. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies that the sex
of offspring is determined at which time?
A. during meiosis cell division
B. at fertilization
C. when the morula forms
D. during oogenesis - ✔✔Answer: B
Rationale: Sex determination occurs at the time of fertilization. Meiosis refers to cell division resulting in
the formation of an ovum or sperm with half the number of chromosomes. The
morula develops after a series of four cleavages following the formation of the zygote. Oogenesis refers
to the development of a mature ovum, which has half the number of chromosomes.
During a prenatal visit, a pregnant woman says, "I know the amniotic fluid is important, but can you tell
me more about it?" When describing amniotic fluid to a pregnant woman, which description would the
nurse most likely include?
A. "This fluid acts as transport mechanism for oxygen and nutrients."
B. "The fluid is mostly protein to provide nourishment to your baby."
C. "This fluid acts as a cushion to help to protect your baby from injury."
D. "The amount of fluid remains fairly constant throughout the pregnancy." - ✔✔Answer: C
Rationale: Amniotic fluid protects the floating embryo and cushions the fetus from trauma. The placenta
acts as a transport mechanism for oxygen and nutrients. Amniotic fluid is primarily water with some
organic matter. Throughout pregnancy, amniotic fluid volume fluctuates.
Assessment of a pregnant woman reveals oligohydramnios. The nurse would be alert for the
development of which condition?
A. maternal diabetes
B. placental insufficiency
C. neural tube defects
D. fetal gastrointestinal malformations - ✔✔Answer: B
Rationale: A deficiency of amniotic fluid, oligohydramnios, is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency
and fetal renal abnormalities. Excess amniotic fluid is associated with maternal diabetes, neural tube
defects, and malformations of the gastrointestinal tract and central nervous system.
A couple comes to the clinic for preconception counseling and care. As part of the visit, the
nurse teaches the couple about fertilization and initial development, stating that the zygote
formed by the union of the ovum and sperm consists of how many chromosomes?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 44
D. 46 - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: With fertilization, the ovum, containing 23 chromosomes, and the sperm, containing 23
chromosomes, join, forming a zygote with a diploid number or 46 chromosomes.
,After teaching a pregnant woman about the hormones produced by the placenta, the nurse
determines that the teaching was successful when the woman identifies which hormone produced
as being the basis for pregnancy tests?
A. human placental lactogen (hPL)
B. estrogen (estriol)
C. progesterone (progestin)
D. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: The placenta produces hCG, which is the basis for pregnancy tests. This hormone preserves
the corpus luteum and its progesterone production so that the endometrial lining is maintained. Human
placental lactogen modulates fetal and maternal metabolism and participates
in the development of the breasts for lactation. Estrogen causes enlargement of the woman's breasts,
uterus, and external genitalia and stimulates myometrial contractility. Progesterone maintains the
endometrium.
When describing genetic disorders to a group of couples planning to have children, the nurse
would identify which as an example of an autosomal dominant inheritance disorder?
A. Huntington disease
B. sickle cell disease
C. phenylketonuria
D. cystic fibrosis - ✔✔Answer: A
Rationale: Huntington disease is an example of an autosomal dominant inheritance disorder. Sickle cell
disease, phenylketonuria, and cystic fibrosis are examples of autosomal recessive inheritance disorders.
Which mother is in the fetal stage of development?
A. a pregnant mother who is one week pregnant
B. a pregnant mother who is five weeks' pregnant
C. a pregnant mother who is seven weeks' pregnant
D. a pregnant mother who is thirty weeks' pregnant - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: The fetal stage of development during pregnancy occurs at the end of the eighth week
and continues through to birth. The mother at one week gestation is in the preembryonic stage. The
mothers at five weeks and seven weeks are in the embryonic stage.
Which event will result in zygote formation?
A. The nucleus of the ovum and sperm make contact and combine chromosomes.
B. The nucleus of the ovum carries forth the genetic information at implantation.
C. The nucleus of the sperm and the fallopian tube make contact and combines chromosomes.
D. The nucleus of the sperm carries forth the genetic information at implantation. - ✔✔Answer: A
Rationale: When the nucleus from the ovum and the nucleus of the sperm make contact, they lose their
respective nuclear membranes and combine their maternal and paternal chromosomes. Because each
nucleus contains a haploid number of chromosomes (23), this union restores the diploid number (46).
The resulting zygote begins the process of a new life.
When describing gender determination at a prenatal class, the nurse would include which
statement?
A. "Gender is determined when the primary oocyte completes its first mitotic division."
B. "Gender is determined when the sperm and the oocyte undergo the process of mitosis."
C. "Gender is determined when the ovum and the spermatozoon undergo the process of meiosis."
, D. "Gender is determined at fertilization when the ovum is fertilized." - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: Gender is determined at fertilization and depends on whether the ovum is fertilized by a Y-
bearing sperm or an X-bearing sperm. Approximately half of sperm carry the XX chromosome, and the
other half carries XY. An XX zygote will become a female, and an XY zygote will become a male. X- and Y-
bearing sperm determine the gender.
During a prenatal class, the nurse is describing what happens when the ovum is fertilized by the sperm.
Which statement would the nurse most likely include?
A. The zygote is transported into the uterine cavity.
B. The embryo is transported into the uterine cavity.
C. Genetic material is shared with the embryo upon implantation.
D. The placenta begins to form in the fallopian tube. - ✔✔Answer: A
Rationale: When the ovum is fertilized by the sperm (now called a zygote), the zygote is transported into
the uterine cavity. The resulting zygote is not yet an embryo to be transported,
nor is genetic material shared with an embryo. The placenta does not form in the fallopian tube.
Which processes that occur after fertilization would lead to a normal pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. The morula divides into specialized cells that will form fetal structures.
B. Within the morula is a blastocyst that will form the embryo.
C. The morula develops into the embryonic membranes, the chorion, and placenta.
D. The morula enters the uterine cavity about 72 hours after fertilization.
E. The blastocyst reaches the uterine cavity immediately after fertilization. - ✔✔Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: With additional cell division, the morula divides into specialized cells that will later form fetal
structures. Within the morula, an off-center, fluid-filled space appears, transforming it into a hollow ball
of cells called a blastocyst. The outer layer of cells surrounding the blastocyst cavity is called a
trophoblast, which develops into one of the embryonic membranes, the chorion, and helps to form the
placenta. The morula reaches the uterine cavity about 72 hours after
fertilization.
Which processes, if they occur during the formation of the placenta, would lead to a successful
pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. Implantation of the trophoblast occurs in the upper uterus.
B. Three days after conception, the trophoblast makes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
C. The trophoblast attaches to the fallopian tube for nourishment.
D. The placenta is fully developed by the end of fourth week.
E. The trophoblast develops into the placenta. - ✔✔Answer: A, B, E
Rationale: Implantation occurs in the upper uterus (fundus), where a rich blood supply is available. As
early as 3 days after conception, the trophoblasts make human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG). By the end of the second week, the placenta is developing. The precursor cells of
the placenta, the trophoblasts, first appear 4 days after fertilization. The trophoblast attaches to the wall
of the uterus, not the fallopian tube.
Which characteristics about amniotic fluid would alert the prenatal nurse to further investigate? Select
all that apply.
A. Oligohydramnios is noted on assessment.
B. The amount of amniotic fluid fluctuates at each checkup.
C. Polyhydramnios is noted on assessment.
D. The client has approximately 2 L of amniotic fluid at term.
NURSING STUDY GUIDE, PRACTICE TEST, AND EXAM REVIEW 2026/2027
The nurse is teaching a couple about the pros and cons of genetic testing. Which statement by
the nurse best describes the limits of genetic testing?
A. "Various genetic tests help the primary care provider choose appropriate treatments."
B. "Genetic testing helps couples avoid having children with fatal diseases."
C. "Genetic tests identify people at high risk for preventable conditions."
D. "Some genetic tests can give a probability for developing a disorder." - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: The fact that some tests only provide a probability for developing a disorder raises a problem.
A serious limitation of these susceptibility tests is that some people who carry a disease-associated
mutation never develop the disease. Choosing appropriate treatments,
avoiding having children with fatal diseases, and identifying those at high risk affirm the value of genetic
tests.
The nurse is counseling a couple who suspect that they could bear a child with a genetic abnormality.
What would be most important for the nurse to do when working with this family?
A. Gather information for three generations.
B. Inform the family of the need for information.
C. Maintain the confidentiality of the information.
D. Present the information in a factual, nondirective manner. - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: It is essential to respect client autonomy and present information in a factual, nondirective
manner. In these situations, the nurse needs to understand that the choice is the couple's to make.
Gathering information for three generations obtains a broad overview of what
has been seen in both sides of the family. Maintaining confidentiality of the information is as important
as with any other client information gathered. Informing the family of the need for
information is necessary because of its personal nature.
The nurse is teaching a couple about X-linked disorders because they are concerned that they
might pass on hemophilia to their children. Which response indicates the need for further teaching?
A. "The father can't be a carrier if he doesn't have hemophilia."
B. "If the father doesn't have it, then his kids won't either."
C. "If the mother is a carrier, her daughter could be one too."
D. "If the mother is a carrier, her sons will have hemophilia." - ✔✔Answer: B
Rationale: Males are more affected than females. A male has only one X chromosome, and all the genes
on his X chromosome will be expressed whereas a female will usually need both X chromosomes to carry
the disease. There is no male-to-male transmission (since no X chromosome from the male is
transmitted to male offspring), but any man who is affected will have carrier daughters. If a woman is a
carrier, there is a 50% chance that her sons will be affected and a 50% chance that her daughters will be
carriers.
A pregnant woman undergoes a triple screen at 16 to 18 weeks' gestation. What would the nurse
suspect if the woman's estriol and alpha fetoprotein levels are decreased with high hCG
levels?
A. Down syndrome
B. sickle-cell anemia
,C. cardiac defects
D. respiratory disorders - ✔✔Answer: A
Rationale: Decreased levels might indicate Down syndrome or trisomy 18. Sickle cell anemia may be
identified by chorionic villus sampling. Levels would be increased with cardiac defects, such as tetralogy
of Fallot. It does not detect respiratory disorders.
The nurse is conducting a presentation for a young adult community group about fetal development and
pregnancy. The nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies that the sex
of offspring is determined at which time?
A. during meiosis cell division
B. at fertilization
C. when the morula forms
D. during oogenesis - ✔✔Answer: B
Rationale: Sex determination occurs at the time of fertilization. Meiosis refers to cell division resulting in
the formation of an ovum or sperm with half the number of chromosomes. The
morula develops after a series of four cleavages following the formation of the zygote. Oogenesis refers
to the development of a mature ovum, which has half the number of chromosomes.
During a prenatal visit, a pregnant woman says, "I know the amniotic fluid is important, but can you tell
me more about it?" When describing amniotic fluid to a pregnant woman, which description would the
nurse most likely include?
A. "This fluid acts as transport mechanism for oxygen and nutrients."
B. "The fluid is mostly protein to provide nourishment to your baby."
C. "This fluid acts as a cushion to help to protect your baby from injury."
D. "The amount of fluid remains fairly constant throughout the pregnancy." - ✔✔Answer: C
Rationale: Amniotic fluid protects the floating embryo and cushions the fetus from trauma. The placenta
acts as a transport mechanism for oxygen and nutrients. Amniotic fluid is primarily water with some
organic matter. Throughout pregnancy, amniotic fluid volume fluctuates.
Assessment of a pregnant woman reveals oligohydramnios. The nurse would be alert for the
development of which condition?
A. maternal diabetes
B. placental insufficiency
C. neural tube defects
D. fetal gastrointestinal malformations - ✔✔Answer: B
Rationale: A deficiency of amniotic fluid, oligohydramnios, is associated with uteroplacental insufficiency
and fetal renal abnormalities. Excess amniotic fluid is associated with maternal diabetes, neural tube
defects, and malformations of the gastrointestinal tract and central nervous system.
A couple comes to the clinic for preconception counseling and care. As part of the visit, the
nurse teaches the couple about fertilization and initial development, stating that the zygote
formed by the union of the ovum and sperm consists of how many chromosomes?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 44
D. 46 - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: With fertilization, the ovum, containing 23 chromosomes, and the sperm, containing 23
chromosomes, join, forming a zygote with a diploid number or 46 chromosomes.
,After teaching a pregnant woman about the hormones produced by the placenta, the nurse
determines that the teaching was successful when the woman identifies which hormone produced
as being the basis for pregnancy tests?
A. human placental lactogen (hPL)
B. estrogen (estriol)
C. progesterone (progestin)
D. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: The placenta produces hCG, which is the basis for pregnancy tests. This hormone preserves
the corpus luteum and its progesterone production so that the endometrial lining is maintained. Human
placental lactogen modulates fetal and maternal metabolism and participates
in the development of the breasts for lactation. Estrogen causes enlargement of the woman's breasts,
uterus, and external genitalia and stimulates myometrial contractility. Progesterone maintains the
endometrium.
When describing genetic disorders to a group of couples planning to have children, the nurse
would identify which as an example of an autosomal dominant inheritance disorder?
A. Huntington disease
B. sickle cell disease
C. phenylketonuria
D. cystic fibrosis - ✔✔Answer: A
Rationale: Huntington disease is an example of an autosomal dominant inheritance disorder. Sickle cell
disease, phenylketonuria, and cystic fibrosis are examples of autosomal recessive inheritance disorders.
Which mother is in the fetal stage of development?
A. a pregnant mother who is one week pregnant
B. a pregnant mother who is five weeks' pregnant
C. a pregnant mother who is seven weeks' pregnant
D. a pregnant mother who is thirty weeks' pregnant - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: The fetal stage of development during pregnancy occurs at the end of the eighth week
and continues through to birth. The mother at one week gestation is in the preembryonic stage. The
mothers at five weeks and seven weeks are in the embryonic stage.
Which event will result in zygote formation?
A. The nucleus of the ovum and sperm make contact and combine chromosomes.
B. The nucleus of the ovum carries forth the genetic information at implantation.
C. The nucleus of the sperm and the fallopian tube make contact and combines chromosomes.
D. The nucleus of the sperm carries forth the genetic information at implantation. - ✔✔Answer: A
Rationale: When the nucleus from the ovum and the nucleus of the sperm make contact, they lose their
respective nuclear membranes and combine their maternal and paternal chromosomes. Because each
nucleus contains a haploid number of chromosomes (23), this union restores the diploid number (46).
The resulting zygote begins the process of a new life.
When describing gender determination at a prenatal class, the nurse would include which
statement?
A. "Gender is determined when the primary oocyte completes its first mitotic division."
B. "Gender is determined when the sperm and the oocyte undergo the process of mitosis."
C. "Gender is determined when the ovum and the spermatozoon undergo the process of meiosis."
, D. "Gender is determined at fertilization when the ovum is fertilized." - ✔✔Answer: D
Rationale: Gender is determined at fertilization and depends on whether the ovum is fertilized by a Y-
bearing sperm or an X-bearing sperm. Approximately half of sperm carry the XX chromosome, and the
other half carries XY. An XX zygote will become a female, and an XY zygote will become a male. X- and Y-
bearing sperm determine the gender.
During a prenatal class, the nurse is describing what happens when the ovum is fertilized by the sperm.
Which statement would the nurse most likely include?
A. The zygote is transported into the uterine cavity.
B. The embryo is transported into the uterine cavity.
C. Genetic material is shared with the embryo upon implantation.
D. The placenta begins to form in the fallopian tube. - ✔✔Answer: A
Rationale: When the ovum is fertilized by the sperm (now called a zygote), the zygote is transported into
the uterine cavity. The resulting zygote is not yet an embryo to be transported,
nor is genetic material shared with an embryo. The placenta does not form in the fallopian tube.
Which processes that occur after fertilization would lead to a normal pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. The morula divides into specialized cells that will form fetal structures.
B. Within the morula is a blastocyst that will form the embryo.
C. The morula develops into the embryonic membranes, the chorion, and placenta.
D. The morula enters the uterine cavity about 72 hours after fertilization.
E. The blastocyst reaches the uterine cavity immediately after fertilization. - ✔✔Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: With additional cell division, the morula divides into specialized cells that will later form fetal
structures. Within the morula, an off-center, fluid-filled space appears, transforming it into a hollow ball
of cells called a blastocyst. The outer layer of cells surrounding the blastocyst cavity is called a
trophoblast, which develops into one of the embryonic membranes, the chorion, and helps to form the
placenta. The morula reaches the uterine cavity about 72 hours after
fertilization.
Which processes, if they occur during the formation of the placenta, would lead to a successful
pregnancy? Select all that apply.
A. Implantation of the trophoblast occurs in the upper uterus.
B. Three days after conception, the trophoblast makes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
C. The trophoblast attaches to the fallopian tube for nourishment.
D. The placenta is fully developed by the end of fourth week.
E. The trophoblast develops into the placenta. - ✔✔Answer: A, B, E
Rationale: Implantation occurs in the upper uterus (fundus), where a rich blood supply is available. As
early as 3 days after conception, the trophoblasts make human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG). By the end of the second week, the placenta is developing. The precursor cells of
the placenta, the trophoblasts, first appear 4 days after fertilization. The trophoblast attaches to the wall
of the uterus, not the fallopian tube.
Which characteristics about amniotic fluid would alert the prenatal nurse to further investigate? Select
all that apply.
A. Oligohydramnios is noted on assessment.
B. The amount of amniotic fluid fluctuates at each checkup.
C. Polyhydramnios is noted on assessment.
D. The client has approximately 2 L of amniotic fluid at term.
