Chamberlain NR511 Week 4 Midterm Exam | Latest Update
2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified Answers | Complete
Q&A Guide | A+ Graded
1. A 43yearold woman presents with fatigue and intermittent abdominal pain. As you think through
possible causes, you continually ask yourself whether any key diagnoses are being overlooked and
whether each lab you order truly adds value. This process best describes which concept?
A. SOAP documentation
B. Diagnostic reasoning
C. Medical decision making
D. Differential diagnosis
Answer: B. Diagnostic reasoning
Explanation: Diagnostic reasoning is a reflective criticalthinking process in which the clinician continually
questions their own thinking, evaluates how each new data point supports or refutes diagnostic
hypotheses, and ensures conclusions are based on evidence.
2. A patient reports, "I've had burning in my chest after large meals for about two months." On exam,
you note BMI 36, normal heart sounds, and mild epigastric tenderness. Which element is SUBJECTIVE
data?
A. BMI 36
B. Normal heart sounds
C. Mild epigastric tenderness
D. Burning in the chest after meals
Answer: D. Burning in the chest after meals
,Explanation: Subjective data are the patient's own reports and perceptions. Objective data are what you
can see, hear, or feel as part of your clinical exam.
3. Which of the following is an important purpose of a written history and physical exam?
A. Eliminates the need for billing codes
B. Serves only as personal notes for the individual provider
C. Serves as a reference document and medicallegal record
D. Replaces communication with consultants
Answer: C. Serves as a reference document and medicallegal record
Explanation: The written H&P summarizes key history and exam findings, outlines the plan,
communicates with other providers, supports accurate coding/billing, and functions as a medical legal
record.
4. A practice submits a CPT code for a procedure without including a corresponding ICD10 code. What is
the MOST likely consequence?
A. The claim is paid at a reduced rate
B. The claim is denied
C. The practice receives a warning letter
D. The procedure is automatically approved
Answer: B. The claim is denied
Explanation: ICD10 codes provide the medical necessity for the procedure described by the CPT code.
Without a corresponding diagnosis code, the claim will most likely be denied.
,5. What is the time frame that defines a chronic cough?
A. 3 weeks
B. 1 month
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
Answer: A. 3 weeks
Explanation: A chronic cough is defined as one that lasts longer than 3 weeks.
6. African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma
medications?
A. Inhaled corticosteroids
B. Longterm betaagonist bronchodilators
C. Leukotriene receptor agonists
D. Oral corticosteroids
Answer: C. Leukotriene receptor agonists
Explanation: African American patients have been shown to have a decreased response to leukotriene
receptor agonists compared to other populations.
, 7. Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What does this mean?
A. The tumor size cannot be evaluated
B. The cancer is in situ
C. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body
D. The cancer is about 5 cm in size
Answer: C. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of
the body
Explanation: T1 indicates tumor ≤2 cm, N0 indicates no lymph node involvement, and M0 indicates no
distant metastasis.
8. Sondra's peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which medication will help to
decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
A. Meclizine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. NSAIDs
D. Beets
Answer: C. NSAIDs
Explanation: NSAIDs help decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear in patients with peripheral
vestibular disease.
9. Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
A. Fluid restriction
2026/2027 | 200 Questions and Verified Answers | Complete
Q&A Guide | A+ Graded
1. A 43yearold woman presents with fatigue and intermittent abdominal pain. As you think through
possible causes, you continually ask yourself whether any key diagnoses are being overlooked and
whether each lab you order truly adds value. This process best describes which concept?
A. SOAP documentation
B. Diagnostic reasoning
C. Medical decision making
D. Differential diagnosis
Answer: B. Diagnostic reasoning
Explanation: Diagnostic reasoning is a reflective criticalthinking process in which the clinician continually
questions their own thinking, evaluates how each new data point supports or refutes diagnostic
hypotheses, and ensures conclusions are based on evidence.
2. A patient reports, "I've had burning in my chest after large meals for about two months." On exam,
you note BMI 36, normal heart sounds, and mild epigastric tenderness. Which element is SUBJECTIVE
data?
A. BMI 36
B. Normal heart sounds
C. Mild epigastric tenderness
D. Burning in the chest after meals
Answer: D. Burning in the chest after meals
,Explanation: Subjective data are the patient's own reports and perceptions. Objective data are what you
can see, hear, or feel as part of your clinical exam.
3. Which of the following is an important purpose of a written history and physical exam?
A. Eliminates the need for billing codes
B. Serves only as personal notes for the individual provider
C. Serves as a reference document and medicallegal record
D. Replaces communication with consultants
Answer: C. Serves as a reference document and medicallegal record
Explanation: The written H&P summarizes key history and exam findings, outlines the plan,
communicates with other providers, supports accurate coding/billing, and functions as a medical legal
record.
4. A practice submits a CPT code for a procedure without including a corresponding ICD10 code. What is
the MOST likely consequence?
A. The claim is paid at a reduced rate
B. The claim is denied
C. The practice receives a warning letter
D. The procedure is automatically approved
Answer: B. The claim is denied
Explanation: ICD10 codes provide the medical necessity for the procedure described by the CPT code.
Without a corresponding diagnosis code, the claim will most likely be denied.
,5. What is the time frame that defines a chronic cough?
A. 3 weeks
B. 1 month
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
Answer: A. 3 weeks
Explanation: A chronic cough is defined as one that lasts longer than 3 weeks.
6. African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma
medications?
A. Inhaled corticosteroids
B. Longterm betaagonist bronchodilators
C. Leukotriene receptor agonists
D. Oral corticosteroids
Answer: C. Leukotriene receptor agonists
Explanation: African American patients have been shown to have a decreased response to leukotriene
receptor agonists compared to other populations.
, 7. Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What does this mean?
A. The tumor size cannot be evaluated
B. The cancer is in situ
C. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body
D. The cancer is about 5 cm in size
Answer: C. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of
the body
Explanation: T1 indicates tumor ≤2 cm, N0 indicates no lymph node involvement, and M0 indicates no
distant metastasis.
8. Sondra's peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which medication will help to
decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
A. Meclizine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. NSAIDs
D. Beets
Answer: C. NSAIDs
Explanation: NSAIDs help decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear in patients with peripheral
vestibular disease.
9. Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
A. Fluid restriction
