EEG BOARD EXAM (PDF) | 2026 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS + RATIONALES | STUDY GUIDE | 100% CORRECT
1. A 45-year-old patient is undergoing a routine EEG. The technologist notices that the
patient's eyes are closed and the background rhythm is 9 Hz. This pattern is best
described as:
A) Alpha rhythm
B) Beta activity
C) Mu rhythm
D) Delta activity
Correct Answer: A) Alpha rhythm
Rationale: Alpha rhythm is an 8-13 Hz rhythm that is most prominent in the posterior head regions
and attenuates with eye opening . It is a normal waking rhythm. Beta activity is >13 Hz, mu rhythm
is 7-11 Hz seen in the central regions, and delta is <4 Hz.
2. A technologist is calibrating the EEG machine. The sensitivity is set to 7 µV/mm, and a
50 µV calibration signal is applied. What is the expected deflection in mm?
A) 3.5 mm
B) 5 mm
C) 7 mm
D) 14 mm
Correct Answer: C) 7 mm
Rationale: The formula is deflection (mm) = signal (µV) / sensitivity (µV/mm) . 50 µV / 7
µV/mm = 7.14 mm, which rounds to 7 mm. This calculation is a fundamental skill in EEG
instrumentation.
3. A spike is printed on paper and measures 16 mm peak-to-peak. The sensitivity is 7
µV/mm, and the calibration signal is 50 µV. The technologist should recognize that:
A) The spike amplitude is 112 µV
B) The calibration is incorrect
C) The spike amplitude is 80 µV
D) The sensitivity needs adjustment
Correct Answer: A) The spike amplitude is 112 µV
Rationale: Amplitude is calculated by multiplying the deflection in mm by the sensitivity . 16
mm × 7 µV/mm = 112 µV. This is a basic calculation used in EEG measurement and
interpretation .
4. Which filters create a very narrow bandpass that should rarely be used clinically?
A) LF 1.0 Hz and HF 35 Hz
B) LF 5.0 Hz and HF 15 Hz
, C) LF 0.5 Hz and HF 70 Hz
D) LF 1.6 Hz and HF 30 Hz
Correct Answer: B) LF 5.0 Hz and HF 15 Hz
Rationale: Low-frequency (LF) 5.0 Hz and high-frequency (HF) 15 Hz filters create a very
narrow bandpass . This setting should rarely be used clinically because it can significantly distort
the EEG. Standard clinical settings are typically LF 1.0 Hz and HF 70 Hz .
5. During the recording of cerebral activity, the calibration input voltage is changed from 50
µV to 100 µV. What will be the result?
A) The amplitude of the recorded activity will increase by 50%
B) The amplitude of the recorded activity will decrease by 50%
C) No effect on the activity being recorded
D) The frequency will double
Correct Answer: C) No effect on the activity being recorded
Rationale: Changing the calibration voltage affects the machine's reference signal, not the
patient's cerebral activity . The amplitude of the recorded EEG is determined by the patient's
brain activity and the sensitivity setting, not the calibration input voltage.
6. A technologist is measuring electrode impedance. The acceptable range for electrode
impedance during EEG recording is:
A) Less than 1 kΩ
B) Less than 10 kΩ
C) More than 20 kΩ
D) Between 50-100 kΩ
Correct Answer: B) Less than 10 kΩ
Rationale: Acceptable electrode impedance for EEG recording is generally less than 10 kΩ .
Higher impedances increase the risk of artifact and can compromise signal quality. Impedances
should be checked before and during the recording.
7. A patient in the epilepsy monitoring unit has a seizure recorded on video EEG. Which of
the following is the most important action for the technologist to take immediately after
the seizure?
A) Document the patient's post-ictal state
B) Adjust the filter settings
C) Remove the electrodes for patient comfort
D) Change the montage to a different setting
Correct Answer: A) Document the patient's post-ictal state
Rationale: Documenting the patient's post-ictal state is critical for clinical correlation and seizure
characterization . The type of post-ictal behavior can help localize the seizure onset zone. The
technologist should not alter settings that would compromise data integrity.
, 8. A patient with a history of epilepsy is undergoing an EEG with hyperventilation
activation. The technologist notices generalized spike-and-wave discharges during the
hyperventilation. This finding is most likely associated with which type of epilepsy?
A) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
B) Childhood absence epilepsy
C) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
D) Temporal lobe epilepsy
Correct Answer: B) Childhood absence epilepsy
Rationale: Hyperventilation is a potent activator of generalized spike-and-wave discharges in
childhood absence epilepsy . The discharges are typically 3 Hz and are associated with brief
lapses in consciousness. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is associated with polyspike-and-wave, not
absence.
9. A technologist is performing an EEG on a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob
disease. Which EEG pattern is characteristic of this condition?
A) 3 Hz spike-and-wave
B) Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges (PLEDs)
C) Generalized periodic discharges (GPDs)
D) Hypersynchronous delta activity
Correct Answer: C) Generalized periodic discharges (GPDs)
Rationale: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is characterized by generalized periodic discharges (GPDs),
typically occurring at 0.5-2 Hz . These are often described as biphasic or triphasic sharp waves.
PLEDs are more associated with acute focal lesions.
10. During a routine EEG, a technologist notes that the 60 Hz filter is on. The patient is not
moving, and there are no electrical devices near the patient. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of the artifact?
A) Electrode paste drying
B) Poor electrode impedance
C) Ballistocardiogram artifact
D) Sweat artifact
Correct Answer: B) Poor electrode impedance
Rationale: Poor electrode impedance can cause 60 Hz artifact by acting as an antenna for
environmental electrical noise . The 60 Hz filter can reduce this artifact, but the root cause—poor
impedance—should be corrected. Proper skin preparation is essential to achieve low impedance.
11. A spike is observed on a routine EEG. Which of the following criteria is used to define a
spike?
A) Duration of 70-200 ms
B) Duration of less than 70 ms
ANSWERS + RATIONALES | STUDY GUIDE | 100% CORRECT
1. A 45-year-old patient is undergoing a routine EEG. The technologist notices that the
patient's eyes are closed and the background rhythm is 9 Hz. This pattern is best
described as:
A) Alpha rhythm
B) Beta activity
C) Mu rhythm
D) Delta activity
Correct Answer: A) Alpha rhythm
Rationale: Alpha rhythm is an 8-13 Hz rhythm that is most prominent in the posterior head regions
and attenuates with eye opening . It is a normal waking rhythm. Beta activity is >13 Hz, mu rhythm
is 7-11 Hz seen in the central regions, and delta is <4 Hz.
2. A technologist is calibrating the EEG machine. The sensitivity is set to 7 µV/mm, and a
50 µV calibration signal is applied. What is the expected deflection in mm?
A) 3.5 mm
B) 5 mm
C) 7 mm
D) 14 mm
Correct Answer: C) 7 mm
Rationale: The formula is deflection (mm) = signal (µV) / sensitivity (µV/mm) . 50 µV / 7
µV/mm = 7.14 mm, which rounds to 7 mm. This calculation is a fundamental skill in EEG
instrumentation.
3. A spike is printed on paper and measures 16 mm peak-to-peak. The sensitivity is 7
µV/mm, and the calibration signal is 50 µV. The technologist should recognize that:
A) The spike amplitude is 112 µV
B) The calibration is incorrect
C) The spike amplitude is 80 µV
D) The sensitivity needs adjustment
Correct Answer: A) The spike amplitude is 112 µV
Rationale: Amplitude is calculated by multiplying the deflection in mm by the sensitivity . 16
mm × 7 µV/mm = 112 µV. This is a basic calculation used in EEG measurement and
interpretation .
4. Which filters create a very narrow bandpass that should rarely be used clinically?
A) LF 1.0 Hz and HF 35 Hz
B) LF 5.0 Hz and HF 15 Hz
, C) LF 0.5 Hz and HF 70 Hz
D) LF 1.6 Hz and HF 30 Hz
Correct Answer: B) LF 5.0 Hz and HF 15 Hz
Rationale: Low-frequency (LF) 5.0 Hz and high-frequency (HF) 15 Hz filters create a very
narrow bandpass . This setting should rarely be used clinically because it can significantly distort
the EEG. Standard clinical settings are typically LF 1.0 Hz and HF 70 Hz .
5. During the recording of cerebral activity, the calibration input voltage is changed from 50
µV to 100 µV. What will be the result?
A) The amplitude of the recorded activity will increase by 50%
B) The amplitude of the recorded activity will decrease by 50%
C) No effect on the activity being recorded
D) The frequency will double
Correct Answer: C) No effect on the activity being recorded
Rationale: Changing the calibration voltage affects the machine's reference signal, not the
patient's cerebral activity . The amplitude of the recorded EEG is determined by the patient's
brain activity and the sensitivity setting, not the calibration input voltage.
6. A technologist is measuring electrode impedance. The acceptable range for electrode
impedance during EEG recording is:
A) Less than 1 kΩ
B) Less than 10 kΩ
C) More than 20 kΩ
D) Between 50-100 kΩ
Correct Answer: B) Less than 10 kΩ
Rationale: Acceptable electrode impedance for EEG recording is generally less than 10 kΩ .
Higher impedances increase the risk of artifact and can compromise signal quality. Impedances
should be checked before and during the recording.
7. A patient in the epilepsy monitoring unit has a seizure recorded on video EEG. Which of
the following is the most important action for the technologist to take immediately after
the seizure?
A) Document the patient's post-ictal state
B) Adjust the filter settings
C) Remove the electrodes for patient comfort
D) Change the montage to a different setting
Correct Answer: A) Document the patient's post-ictal state
Rationale: Documenting the patient's post-ictal state is critical for clinical correlation and seizure
characterization . The type of post-ictal behavior can help localize the seizure onset zone. The
technologist should not alter settings that would compromise data integrity.
, 8. A patient with a history of epilepsy is undergoing an EEG with hyperventilation
activation. The technologist notices generalized spike-and-wave discharges during the
hyperventilation. This finding is most likely associated with which type of epilepsy?
A) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
B) Childhood absence epilepsy
C) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
D) Temporal lobe epilepsy
Correct Answer: B) Childhood absence epilepsy
Rationale: Hyperventilation is a potent activator of generalized spike-and-wave discharges in
childhood absence epilepsy . The discharges are typically 3 Hz and are associated with brief
lapses in consciousness. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is associated with polyspike-and-wave, not
absence.
9. A technologist is performing an EEG on a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob
disease. Which EEG pattern is characteristic of this condition?
A) 3 Hz spike-and-wave
B) Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges (PLEDs)
C) Generalized periodic discharges (GPDs)
D) Hypersynchronous delta activity
Correct Answer: C) Generalized periodic discharges (GPDs)
Rationale: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is characterized by generalized periodic discharges (GPDs),
typically occurring at 0.5-2 Hz . These are often described as biphasic or triphasic sharp waves.
PLEDs are more associated with acute focal lesions.
10. During a routine EEG, a technologist notes that the 60 Hz filter is on. The patient is not
moving, and there are no electrical devices near the patient. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of the artifact?
A) Electrode paste drying
B) Poor electrode impedance
C) Ballistocardiogram artifact
D) Sweat artifact
Correct Answer: B) Poor electrode impedance
Rationale: Poor electrode impedance can cause 60 Hz artifact by acting as an antenna for
environmental electrical noise . The 60 Hz filter can reduce this artifact, but the root cause—poor
impedance—should be corrected. Proper skin preparation is essential to achieve low impedance.
11. A spike is observed on a routine EEG. Which of the following criteria is used to define a
spike?
A) Duration of 70-200 ms
B) Duration of less than 70 ms
