NR 601 Midterm Exam Prep Document | 2026/2027 Edition |
250 Verified Questions
NR 601 Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family Midterm Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive test bank for NR 601 Midterm Exam (Chamberlain) contains 250 verified
questions covering all key topics in primary care of the maturing and aged family. Each question is
accompanied by detailed rationales and explanations to reinforce learning and ensure exam readiness.
Updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource reflects the latest evidence-based guidelines
for geriatric care. Ideal for nursing students seeking a high-yield review and a guaranteed A+
performance.
Key Features:
Geriatric assessment and screening tools
Chronic disease management (HTN, DM, COPD, CKD)
Pharmacology and polypharmacy considerations
Common geriatric syndromes (falls, delirium, incontinence)
Health promotion and preventative care in older adults
Ethical and legal issues in aging care
Updates for 2026:
- Incorporated 2026 AGS Beers Criteria updates
- Revised hypertension management per 2024 ACC/AHA guidelines
- Updated diabetes management including SGLT2i and GLP-1 RA recommendations
- Added coverage of new Medicare wellness visit requirements
- Integrated latest Alzheimer's disease diagnostic criteria and treatment options
Abstract:
This meticulously compiled test bank for the NR 601 Midterm Exam at Chamberlain University provides an
authoritative review of primary care for the maturing and aged family. Developed by expert nursing educators, the
250 questions span the breadth of geriatric practice, from physiological changes of aging to complex disease
management. Each question includes evidence-based rationales, distractors explanations, and references to
current clinical guidelines. Emphasis is placed on pharmacotherapeutic considerations, including the 2026 AGS
Beers Criteria, and on common geriatric syndromes such as falls, dementia, and incontinence. The document also
addresses health maintenance, screening recommendations, and ethical decision-making in elderly care. Updated
for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource ensures alignment with the latest NP competencies and the most
recent evidence from randomized controlled trials and systematic reviews. It is designed to foster critical thinking
and clinical reasoning, making it an indispensable tool for exam preparation and future practice.
Keywords:
NR 601 midterm, primary care older adults, geriatric nursing, test bank 2026, Chamberlain University, aging
family health, gerontology exam prep
Answer Format:
Each of the 250 questions is presented in multiple-choice format with four options (A, B, C, D). The correct answer
is highlighted, followed by a concise rationale explaining why it is correct. Incorrect options are also addressed
with brief explanations to clarify common misconceptions. All answers are graded A+ and cross-referenced with
current evidence-based guidelines.
Compliance Checklist:
Page 1
, Aligned with 2026/2027 AACN Essentials for Advanced Nursing Practice
Compliant with updated CDC and USPSTF screening guidelines for older adults
Reflects 2026 AGS Beers Criteria for potentially inappropriate medication use
Integrates 2024 ACC/AHA and ADA standards of care for chronic disease management
Includes 2025 CMS Annual Wellness Visit algorithm and coverage updates
Adheres to Chamberlain University's academic integrity policies for test banks
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Physiological Changes and 1-35 Normal aging changes, comprehensive 14%
Geriatric Assessment geriatric assessment, functional status,
screening tools (MMSE, MOCA, Katz
ADL)
Chronic Disease Management 36-95 Hypertension, diabetes, COPD, heart failure, 24%
CKD, osteoarthritis, osteoporosis
Pharmacology and 96-135 Beers Criteria, age-related pharmacokinetics, 16%
Polypharmacy deprescribing, antibiotic stewardship
Geriatric Syndromes and Mental 136-185 Falls, delirium, dementia, depression, 20%
Health incontinence, sleep disorders
Preventive Care and Health 186-220 Immunizations, cancer screening, nutrition, 14%
Promotion exercise, advance directives, Medicare
yearly wellness visit
Ethical, Legal, and Cultural 221-250 Elder abuse, capacity and consent, advance 12%
Issues care planning, cultural competence,
end-of-life care
Page 2
,Q1. A nursing home resident with dementia and behavioral agitation is prescribed
multiple psychotropic medications. Which drug should be prioritized for
deprescribing according to the 2023 Beers Criteria due to its anticholinergic burden?
A. Quetiapine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Lorazepam
D. Citalopram
Correct Answer: B. Diphenhydramine
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is a strong anticholinergic and is listed as potentially
inappropriate in the 2023 Beers Criteria due to increased risk of confusion, falls, and
delirium. Quetiapine is inappropriate for chronic use in dementia unless for specific
indications, but its anticholinergic effect is less than diphenhydramine. Lorazepam is a
benzodiazepine also inappropriate, but the question focuses on anticholinergic burden.
Citalopram is a first-line antidepressant with minimal anticholinergic effects.
Why Wrong:
A - Quetiapine has anticholinergic effects but is less potent than diphenhydramine;
deprescribing it may be considered but not with highest priority based solely on
anticholinergic burden.
C - Lorazepam is not an anticholinergic; it is a benzodiazepine; its risks include
sedation and falls, but it does not directly align with anticholinergic burden.
D - Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor with minimal anticholinergic
activity and is generally safer for older adults.
Reference: By the American Geriatrics Society Beers Criteria Update Expert Panel
(2023). American Geriatrics Society 2023 Updated AGS Beers Criteria for
Potentially Inappropriate Medication Use in Older Adults. J Am Geriatr Soc.
2023;71(7):2052-2081.
Q2. A community-dwelling older adult with no reported falls in the past year presents
for an annual wellness visit. According to the updated USPSTF recommendation,
which single screening approach is considered adequate to identify individuals at
increased fall risk?
A. Timed Up and Go test alone
B. Three-question STEADI screen
C. Berg Balance Scale
D. Multifactorial risk assessment without prior screening
Correct Answer: B. Three-question STEADI screen
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for fall risk in community-dwelling adults
aged 65+ by asking about falls in the past year, feeling unsteady, or fear of falling. The
three-question STEADI screen (Stay Independent tool) is evidence-based. TUG is a
performance-based measure used after screening positive. Berg Balance Scale is more
Page 3
, detailed but not a single screening step. Multifactorial assessment is reserved for those
identified at risk.
Why Wrong:
A - The Timed Up and Go test is a performance-based measure used for further
assessment after initial screening, not a standalone screening tool per USPSTF.
C - The Berg Balance Scale is a comprehensive assessment tool, not a brief screening
instrument; it is too time-consuming for primary care screening.
D - Multifactorial risk assessment is recommended only for individuals who screen
positive for increased fall risk, not for universal initial screening.
Reference: US Preventive Services Task Force. Interventions to Prevent Falls in
Community-Dwelling Older Adults: US Preventive Services Task Force
Recommendation Statement. JAMA. 2024;332(1):51-60.
Q3. A patient presents with progressive cognitive decline over 12 months,
characterized by early prominent visuospatial deficits, fluctuating cognition, and
well-formed visual hallucinations. Which finding on neurological exam would most
support the diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies over Alzheimer disease?
A. Tremor at rest
B. Parkinsonism features such as bradykinesia
C. Focal weakness in one limb
D. Symmetric loss of vibration sense
Correct Answer: B. Parkinsonism features such as bradykinesia
Rationale: Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by parkinsonism
(bradykinesia, rigidity, gait disorder) along with cognitive fluctuations and visual
hallucinations. While rest tremor can occur in Parkinson disease, it is less common in
DLB; bradykinesia is a core feature. Focal weakness suggests stroke. Vibration loss is
common in peripheral neuropathy, not specific to DLB.
Why Wrong:
A - Rest tremor is more typical of Parkinson disease; in DLB, parkinsonism is usually
symmetric and may lack prominent tremor.
C - Focal weakness indicates a vascular cause; DLB does not cause focal motor
deficits.
D - Symmetric loss of vibration sense suggests peripheral neuropathy, not a dementia
type.
Reference: McKeith IG, Boeve BF, Dickson DW, et al. Diagnosis and management of
dementia with Lewy bodies: Fourth consensus report of the DLB Consortium.
Neurology. 2017;89(1):88-100.
Page 4
250 Verified Questions
NR 601 Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family Midterm Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive test bank for NR 601 Midterm Exam (Chamberlain) contains 250 verified
questions covering all key topics in primary care of the maturing and aged family. Each question is
accompanied by detailed rationales and explanations to reinforce learning and ensure exam readiness.
Updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource reflects the latest evidence-based guidelines
for geriatric care. Ideal for nursing students seeking a high-yield review and a guaranteed A+
performance.
Key Features:
Geriatric assessment and screening tools
Chronic disease management (HTN, DM, COPD, CKD)
Pharmacology and polypharmacy considerations
Common geriatric syndromes (falls, delirium, incontinence)
Health promotion and preventative care in older adults
Ethical and legal issues in aging care
Updates for 2026:
- Incorporated 2026 AGS Beers Criteria updates
- Revised hypertension management per 2024 ACC/AHA guidelines
- Updated diabetes management including SGLT2i and GLP-1 RA recommendations
- Added coverage of new Medicare wellness visit requirements
- Integrated latest Alzheimer's disease diagnostic criteria and treatment options
Abstract:
This meticulously compiled test bank for the NR 601 Midterm Exam at Chamberlain University provides an
authoritative review of primary care for the maturing and aged family. Developed by expert nursing educators, the
250 questions span the breadth of geriatric practice, from physiological changes of aging to complex disease
management. Each question includes evidence-based rationales, distractors explanations, and references to
current clinical guidelines. Emphasis is placed on pharmacotherapeutic considerations, including the 2026 AGS
Beers Criteria, and on common geriatric syndromes such as falls, dementia, and incontinence. The document also
addresses health maintenance, screening recommendations, and ethical decision-making in elderly care. Updated
for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource ensures alignment with the latest NP competencies and the most
recent evidence from randomized controlled trials and systematic reviews. It is designed to foster critical thinking
and clinical reasoning, making it an indispensable tool for exam preparation and future practice.
Keywords:
NR 601 midterm, primary care older adults, geriatric nursing, test bank 2026, Chamberlain University, aging
family health, gerontology exam prep
Answer Format:
Each of the 250 questions is presented in multiple-choice format with four options (A, B, C, D). The correct answer
is highlighted, followed by a concise rationale explaining why it is correct. Incorrect options are also addressed
with brief explanations to clarify common misconceptions. All answers are graded A+ and cross-referenced with
current evidence-based guidelines.
Compliance Checklist:
Page 1
, Aligned with 2026/2027 AACN Essentials for Advanced Nursing Practice
Compliant with updated CDC and USPSTF screening guidelines for older adults
Reflects 2026 AGS Beers Criteria for potentially inappropriate medication use
Integrates 2024 ACC/AHA and ADA standards of care for chronic disease management
Includes 2025 CMS Annual Wellness Visit algorithm and coverage updates
Adheres to Chamberlain University's academic integrity policies for test banks
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Physiological Changes and 1-35 Normal aging changes, comprehensive 14%
Geriatric Assessment geriatric assessment, functional status,
screening tools (MMSE, MOCA, Katz
ADL)
Chronic Disease Management 36-95 Hypertension, diabetes, COPD, heart failure, 24%
CKD, osteoarthritis, osteoporosis
Pharmacology and 96-135 Beers Criteria, age-related pharmacokinetics, 16%
Polypharmacy deprescribing, antibiotic stewardship
Geriatric Syndromes and Mental 136-185 Falls, delirium, dementia, depression, 20%
Health incontinence, sleep disorders
Preventive Care and Health 186-220 Immunizations, cancer screening, nutrition, 14%
Promotion exercise, advance directives, Medicare
yearly wellness visit
Ethical, Legal, and Cultural 221-250 Elder abuse, capacity and consent, advance 12%
Issues care planning, cultural competence,
end-of-life care
Page 2
,Q1. A nursing home resident with dementia and behavioral agitation is prescribed
multiple psychotropic medications. Which drug should be prioritized for
deprescribing according to the 2023 Beers Criteria due to its anticholinergic burden?
A. Quetiapine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Lorazepam
D. Citalopram
Correct Answer: B. Diphenhydramine
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is a strong anticholinergic and is listed as potentially
inappropriate in the 2023 Beers Criteria due to increased risk of confusion, falls, and
delirium. Quetiapine is inappropriate for chronic use in dementia unless for specific
indications, but its anticholinergic effect is less than diphenhydramine. Lorazepam is a
benzodiazepine also inappropriate, but the question focuses on anticholinergic burden.
Citalopram is a first-line antidepressant with minimal anticholinergic effects.
Why Wrong:
A - Quetiapine has anticholinergic effects but is less potent than diphenhydramine;
deprescribing it may be considered but not with highest priority based solely on
anticholinergic burden.
C - Lorazepam is not an anticholinergic; it is a benzodiazepine; its risks include
sedation and falls, but it does not directly align with anticholinergic burden.
D - Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor with minimal anticholinergic
activity and is generally safer for older adults.
Reference: By the American Geriatrics Society Beers Criteria Update Expert Panel
(2023). American Geriatrics Society 2023 Updated AGS Beers Criteria for
Potentially Inappropriate Medication Use in Older Adults. J Am Geriatr Soc.
2023;71(7):2052-2081.
Q2. A community-dwelling older adult with no reported falls in the past year presents
for an annual wellness visit. According to the updated USPSTF recommendation,
which single screening approach is considered adequate to identify individuals at
increased fall risk?
A. Timed Up and Go test alone
B. Three-question STEADI screen
C. Berg Balance Scale
D. Multifactorial risk assessment without prior screening
Correct Answer: B. Three-question STEADI screen
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for fall risk in community-dwelling adults
aged 65+ by asking about falls in the past year, feeling unsteady, or fear of falling. The
three-question STEADI screen (Stay Independent tool) is evidence-based. TUG is a
performance-based measure used after screening positive. Berg Balance Scale is more
Page 3
, detailed but not a single screening step. Multifactorial assessment is reserved for those
identified at risk.
Why Wrong:
A - The Timed Up and Go test is a performance-based measure used for further
assessment after initial screening, not a standalone screening tool per USPSTF.
C - The Berg Balance Scale is a comprehensive assessment tool, not a brief screening
instrument; it is too time-consuming for primary care screening.
D - Multifactorial risk assessment is recommended only for individuals who screen
positive for increased fall risk, not for universal initial screening.
Reference: US Preventive Services Task Force. Interventions to Prevent Falls in
Community-Dwelling Older Adults: US Preventive Services Task Force
Recommendation Statement. JAMA. 2024;332(1):51-60.
Q3. A patient presents with progressive cognitive decline over 12 months,
characterized by early prominent visuospatial deficits, fluctuating cognition, and
well-formed visual hallucinations. Which finding on neurological exam would most
support the diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies over Alzheimer disease?
A. Tremor at rest
B. Parkinsonism features such as bradykinesia
C. Focal weakness in one limb
D. Symmetric loss of vibration sense
Correct Answer: B. Parkinsonism features such as bradykinesia
Rationale: Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by parkinsonism
(bradykinesia, rigidity, gait disorder) along with cognitive fluctuations and visual
hallucinations. While rest tremor can occur in Parkinson disease, it is less common in
DLB; bradykinesia is a core feature. Focal weakness suggests stroke. Vibration loss is
common in peripheral neuropathy, not specific to DLB.
Why Wrong:
A - Rest tremor is more typical of Parkinson disease; in DLB, parkinsonism is usually
symmetric and may lack prominent tremor.
C - Focal weakness indicates a vascular cause; DLB does not cause focal motor
deficits.
D - Symmetric loss of vibration sense suggests peripheral neuropathy, not a dementia
type.
Reference: McKeith IG, Boeve BF, Dickson DW, et al. Diagnosis and management of
dementia with Lewy bodies: Fourth consensus report of the DLB Consortium.
Neurology. 2017;89(1):88-100.
Page 4
