HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2025/2026 430
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES
SECTION 1: PHARMACOLOGY & MEDICATIONS (Questions 150)
1. Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet
fever, and pharyngitis?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Pseudomonas
D) Neisseria
Correct Answer: B) Streptococcus
Rationale: Streptococcus pyogenes is the species responsible for these
infections. This grampositive coccus produces pyrogenic exotoxins that cause
the characteristic symptoms of scarlet fever and can lead to pharyngitis and
rheumatic fever.
2. Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the
EXCEPTION?
A) Ethambutol
,B) Isoniazid
C) Nizoral
D) Rifampin
Correct Answer: C) Nizoral
Rationale: Nizoral (ketoconazole) is an antifungal agent, not an antitubercular
drug. Ethambutol, isoniazid, and rifampin are all firstline antituberculosis
medications.
3. Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication?
A) Mitral valve prolapses without regurgitation
B) Repaired congenital heart disease
C) Coronary artery stent
D) Pacemaker
Correct Answer: B) Repaired congenital heart disease
Rationale: According to AHA guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis is
recommended for patients with repaired congenital heart disease with
residual defects at the site or adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or
device.
,4. A patient's medical history reveals mitral valve prolapse, a stent,
pneumonic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does
the patient require antibiotic premedication?
A) Mitral valve prolapses
B) Coronary artery stent
C) Pneumonic heart disease
D) Renal dialysis shunt
Correct Answer: D) Renal dialysis shunt
Rationale: Patients with vascular access shunts for hemodialysis are at risk for
infection and require antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures to
prevent shunt infection and sepsis.
5. A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning?
A) Every day
B) Four times a day
C) Twice a day
D) Every other day
Correct Answer: B) Four times a day
Rationale: "qid" is the Latin abbreviation for "quater in die," meaning four
times a day. "QD" means once daily, "BID" means twice daily, and "TID" means
three times daily.
, 6. Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription
states "NO REFILLS"?
A) Schedule II
B) Schedule III
C) Schedule IV
D) Schedule V
Correct Answer: A) Schedule II
Rationale: Schedule II controlled substances have the highest potential for
abuse among prescription drugs and cannot be refilled; a new prescription
must be written. Examples include opioids, stimulants, and某些 barbiturates.
7. Which vitamin deficiency results from longterm recreational abuse of
nitrous oxide?
A) Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
B) Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
C) Vitamin B9 (Folate)
D) Vitamin B1 (Thiamin)
Correct Answer: B) Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
Rationale: Chronic nitrous oxide exposure inactivates vitamin B12 by
oxidizing the cobalt atom, leading to functional B12 deficiency. This can cause
neurological symptoms and megaloblastic anemia.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES
SECTION 1: PHARMACOLOGY & MEDICATIONS (Questions 150)
1. Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet
fever, and pharyngitis?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Pseudomonas
D) Neisseria
Correct Answer: B) Streptococcus
Rationale: Streptococcus pyogenes is the species responsible for these
infections. This grampositive coccus produces pyrogenic exotoxins that cause
the characteristic symptoms of scarlet fever and can lead to pharyngitis and
rheumatic fever.
2. Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the
EXCEPTION?
A) Ethambutol
,B) Isoniazid
C) Nizoral
D) Rifampin
Correct Answer: C) Nizoral
Rationale: Nizoral (ketoconazole) is an antifungal agent, not an antitubercular
drug. Ethambutol, isoniazid, and rifampin are all firstline antituberculosis
medications.
3. Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication?
A) Mitral valve prolapses without regurgitation
B) Repaired congenital heart disease
C) Coronary artery stent
D) Pacemaker
Correct Answer: B) Repaired congenital heart disease
Rationale: According to AHA guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis is
recommended for patients with repaired congenital heart disease with
residual defects at the site or adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or
device.
,4. A patient's medical history reveals mitral valve prolapse, a stent,
pneumonic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does
the patient require antibiotic premedication?
A) Mitral valve prolapses
B) Coronary artery stent
C) Pneumonic heart disease
D) Renal dialysis shunt
Correct Answer: D) Renal dialysis shunt
Rationale: Patients with vascular access shunts for hemodialysis are at risk for
infection and require antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures to
prevent shunt infection and sepsis.
5. A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning?
A) Every day
B) Four times a day
C) Twice a day
D) Every other day
Correct Answer: B) Four times a day
Rationale: "qid" is the Latin abbreviation for "quater in die," meaning four
times a day. "QD" means once daily, "BID" means twice daily, and "TID" means
three times daily.
, 6. Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription
states "NO REFILLS"?
A) Schedule II
B) Schedule III
C) Schedule IV
D) Schedule V
Correct Answer: A) Schedule II
Rationale: Schedule II controlled substances have the highest potential for
abuse among prescription drugs and cannot be refilled; a new prescription
must be written. Examples include opioids, stimulants, and某些 barbiturates.
7. Which vitamin deficiency results from longterm recreational abuse of
nitrous oxide?
A) Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
B) Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
C) Vitamin B9 (Folate)
D) Vitamin B1 (Thiamin)
Correct Answer: B) Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
Rationale: Chronic nitrous oxide exposure inactivates vitamin B12 by
oxidizing the cobalt atom, leading to functional B12 deficiency. This can cause
neurological symptoms and megaloblastic anemia.
