DHA (DUBAI HEALTH AUTHORITY) NURSING EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST
Question 1:
A 60-year-old patient with chronic heart failure presents with shortness of breath,
peripheral edema, and crackles in the lungs. Which assessment finding indicates
worsening fluid overload?
A) Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
B) Distended neck veins
C) Warm, dry skin
D) Heart rate 78 bpm
Answer: B) Distended neck veins
Rationale: Distended neck veins indicate increased central venous pressure, a
hallmark of fluid overload in heart failure. Warm, dry skin and stable vitals do not
necessarily indicate worsening fluid status.
Question 2:
A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide to a patient with heart failure.
Which laboratory value should the nurse check first?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Serum potassium
C) Platelet count
D) Blood glucose
Answer: B) Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. Checking
potassium prior to administration helps prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.
,Question 3 .:
A diabetic patient reports feeling shaky, sweaty, and anxious. Blood glucose is 48
mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer insulin
B) Give 15–20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
C) Encourage rest
D) Notify the provider before intervening
Answer: B) Give 15–20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: The patient is experiencing hypoglycemia. Immediate treatment with
fast-acting carbohydrates (like juice or glucose tablets) is essential to prevent
complications.
Question 4:
Which patient is at highest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
A) 25-year-old with ankle sprain
B) 70-year-old with immobility and diabetes
C) 50-year-old scheduled for elective surgery
D) 35-year-old with asthma
Answer: B) 70-year-old with immobility and diabetes
Rationale: Age, immobility, and diabetes increase susceptibility to pressure ulcers
due to poor circulation and skin fragility.
Question 5:
A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The patient
becomes drowsy and shows a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A) Increase oxygen flow to 4 L/min
B) Encourage deep breathing exercises
C) Stop oxygen and notify the provider
D) Assess airway and prepare for assisted ventilation
Answer: D) Assess airway and prepare for assisted ventilation
,Rationale: Hypoventilation in COPD can indicate CO₂ retention. Immediate
airway assessment and preparation for ventilatory support are critical. Oxygen flow
adjustments should be guided by the provider.
Question 6 .:
A patient with acute pancreatitis has severe abdominal pain and vomiting. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A) Administer oral nutrition immediately
B) Initiate NPO status and IV fluids
C) Encourage ambulation
D) Apply warm compress to abdomen
Answer: B) Initiate NPO status and IV fluids
Rationale: NPO and IV fluids prevent pancreatic stimulation and dehydration.
Pain management is also essential, but oral intake is avoided during acute
exacerbation.
Question 7:
A nurse teaches a patient with newly diagnosed hypertension about lifestyle
modifications. Which statement indicates understanding?
A) “I can continue eating processed foods as long as I take my medication.”
B) “I should reduce sodium intake and exercise regularly.”
C) “I only need to check my blood pressure when I feel unwell.”
D) “Stress has no impact on blood pressure.”
Answer: B) “I should reduce sodium intake and exercise regularly.”
Rationale: Lifestyle modifications like sodium restriction, exercise, weight
control, and stress management are essential in managing hypertension.
, Question 8:
Which patient requires droplet precautions?
A) Tuberculosis patient
B) Influenza patient
C) MRSA wound infection patient
D) Varicella patient
Answer: B) Influenza patient
Rationale: Influenza spreads via droplets; TB requires airborne precautions,
MRSA requires contact precautions, and varicella requires airborne and contact
precautions.
Question 9 .:
A patient with sepsis has a BP of 80/50 mmHg, HR 120 bpm, and urine output 15
mL/hr. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer IV fluids as ordered
B) Encourage oral hydration
C) Monitor vital signs every 4 hours
D) Place patient in high Fowler’s position
Answer: A) Administer IV fluids as ordered
Rationale: Hypotension, tachycardia, and low urine output indicate hypoperfusion.
Rapid fluid resuscitation is critical to maintain organ perfusion.
Question 10:
A nurse is caring for a patient on heparin therapy. Which finding indicates a
potential complication?
A) Stable hemoglobin and hematocrit
B) Bruising at injection sites
C) Platelet count of 80,000/mm³
D) Mild headache
Answer: C) Platelet count of 80,000/mm³
Rationale: Heparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). A
significant drop in platelets is concerning and requires immediate attention.
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST
Question 1:
A 60-year-old patient with chronic heart failure presents with shortness of breath,
peripheral edema, and crackles in the lungs. Which assessment finding indicates
worsening fluid overload?
A) Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
B) Distended neck veins
C) Warm, dry skin
D) Heart rate 78 bpm
Answer: B) Distended neck veins
Rationale: Distended neck veins indicate increased central venous pressure, a
hallmark of fluid overload in heart failure. Warm, dry skin and stable vitals do not
necessarily indicate worsening fluid status.
Question 2:
A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide to a patient with heart failure.
Which laboratory value should the nurse check first?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Serum potassium
C) Platelet count
D) Blood glucose
Answer: B) Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. Checking
potassium prior to administration helps prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.
,Question 3 .:
A diabetic patient reports feeling shaky, sweaty, and anxious. Blood glucose is 48
mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer insulin
B) Give 15–20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
C) Encourage rest
D) Notify the provider before intervening
Answer: B) Give 15–20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: The patient is experiencing hypoglycemia. Immediate treatment with
fast-acting carbohydrates (like juice or glucose tablets) is essential to prevent
complications.
Question 4:
Which patient is at highest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
A) 25-year-old with ankle sprain
B) 70-year-old with immobility and diabetes
C) 50-year-old scheduled for elective surgery
D) 35-year-old with asthma
Answer: B) 70-year-old with immobility and diabetes
Rationale: Age, immobility, and diabetes increase susceptibility to pressure ulcers
due to poor circulation and skin fragility.
Question 5:
A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The patient
becomes drowsy and shows a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A) Increase oxygen flow to 4 L/min
B) Encourage deep breathing exercises
C) Stop oxygen and notify the provider
D) Assess airway and prepare for assisted ventilation
Answer: D) Assess airway and prepare for assisted ventilation
,Rationale: Hypoventilation in COPD can indicate CO₂ retention. Immediate
airway assessment and preparation for ventilatory support are critical. Oxygen flow
adjustments should be guided by the provider.
Question 6 .:
A patient with acute pancreatitis has severe abdominal pain and vomiting. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A) Administer oral nutrition immediately
B) Initiate NPO status and IV fluids
C) Encourage ambulation
D) Apply warm compress to abdomen
Answer: B) Initiate NPO status and IV fluids
Rationale: NPO and IV fluids prevent pancreatic stimulation and dehydration.
Pain management is also essential, but oral intake is avoided during acute
exacerbation.
Question 7:
A nurse teaches a patient with newly diagnosed hypertension about lifestyle
modifications. Which statement indicates understanding?
A) “I can continue eating processed foods as long as I take my medication.”
B) “I should reduce sodium intake and exercise regularly.”
C) “I only need to check my blood pressure when I feel unwell.”
D) “Stress has no impact on blood pressure.”
Answer: B) “I should reduce sodium intake and exercise regularly.”
Rationale: Lifestyle modifications like sodium restriction, exercise, weight
control, and stress management are essential in managing hypertension.
, Question 8:
Which patient requires droplet precautions?
A) Tuberculosis patient
B) Influenza patient
C) MRSA wound infection patient
D) Varicella patient
Answer: B) Influenza patient
Rationale: Influenza spreads via droplets; TB requires airborne precautions,
MRSA requires contact precautions, and varicella requires airborne and contact
precautions.
Question 9 .:
A patient with sepsis has a BP of 80/50 mmHg, HR 120 bpm, and urine output 15
mL/hr. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Administer IV fluids as ordered
B) Encourage oral hydration
C) Monitor vital signs every 4 hours
D) Place patient in high Fowler’s position
Answer: A) Administer IV fluids as ordered
Rationale: Hypotension, tachycardia, and low urine output indicate hypoperfusion.
Rapid fluid resuscitation is critical to maintain organ perfusion.
Question 10:
A nurse is caring for a patient on heparin therapy. Which finding indicates a
potential complication?
A) Stable hemoglobin and hematocrit
B) Bruising at injection sites
C) Platelet count of 80,000/mm³
D) Mild headache
Answer: C) Platelet count of 80,000/mm³
Rationale: Heparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). A
significant drop in platelets is concerning and requires immediate attention.
