NR 573 PRIMARY CARE OF WOMEN FINAL EXAM
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
100% GUARANTEED PASS!!
<LATEST VERSION>
Question 1
A 27-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit. She reports that the first
day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was exactly 10 weeks ago. She has mild
nausea but is tolerating oral fluids. Which assessment finding is most consistent
with her gestational age?
A. Fetal heart tones are routinely heard with a fetoscope.
B. The uterine fundus is palpable midway between the symphysis pubis and
umbilicus.
C. The uterus is approximately the size of a grapefruit and remains within the
pelvis.
D. Quickening is expected in all pregnancies.
Answer: C
Rationale: At approximately 10 weeks' gestation, the uterus enlarges to about the
size of a grapefruit but remains a pelvic organ. Fetal heart tones are generally
detected by Doppler around 10–12 weeks, while a fetoscope is typically useful
after 18–20 weeks. The fundus reaches midway between the symphysis and
umbilicus around 16 weeks. Quickening commonly occurs between 16–20 weeks.
,Question 2
A 34-year-old woman with obesity (BMI 36 kg/m²) reports irregular vaginal
bleeding. She has a history of chronic anovulation and has never been pregnant.
Which condition is she at greatest risk for?
A. Cervical carcinoma
B. Endometrial carcinoma
C. Vulvar carcinoma
D. Gestational trophoblastic disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Obesity and chronic anovulation expose the endometrium to prolonged
unopposed estrogen, increasing the risk for Type I endometrial carcinoma.
Cervical and vulvar cancers are more strongly associated with persistent high-risk
HPV infection, while gestational trophoblastic disease occurs following pregnancy.
Question 3
A healthy 22-year-old woman requests contraception. She reports migraines
without aura, does not smoke, and has no significant medical history. Which
contraceptive method is appropriate?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pill
B. Copper IUD is contraindicated because she is nulliparous.
C. Estrogen-containing patch is contraindicated because of age.
D. Permanent sterilization is preferred for nulliparous women.
Answer: A
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives are appropriate for healthy,
nonsmoking women younger than 35 years who have migraines without aura.
Nulliparity is not a contraindication to IUD use. Estrogen-containing methods are
contraindicated primarily in migraine with aura or other significant risk factors.
,Question 4
A nurse practitioner performs Leopold's maneuvers on a woman at 37 weeks'
gestation. The fetal head is palpated in the maternal pelvis, and the fetal back is
smooth along the mother's left side. Which fetal presentation is identified?
A. Breech
B. Cephalic, left occiput anterior
C. Shoulder presentation
D. Transverse lie
Answer: B
Rationale: A fetal head located in the pelvis indicates cephalic presentation. A
smooth back on the maternal left side is consistent with a left occiput anterior
position, the most favorable position for vaginal birth.
Question 5
A 30-year-old pregnant woman at 11 weeks reports severe nausea and vomiting.
She has lost 8 pounds in 3 weeks and has ketones in her urine. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Normal morning sickness
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent vomiting
causing dehydration, ketonuria, electrolyte disturbances, and weight loss. Typical
morning sickness rarely produces these complications.
, Question 6
A 29-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening. She has no
symptoms, no previous abnormal Pap tests, and is otherwise healthy. According to
current screening recommendations, cervical cytology guidelines primarily apply
to which patient population?
A. Women with unexplained postmenopausal bleeding
B. Women with active abnormal vaginal bleeding
C. Asymptomatic women eligible for routine screening
D. Women treated previously for cervical cancer
Answer: C
Rationale: Routine cervical cancer screening recommendations apply to
asymptomatic women eligible for preventive screening. Women with symptoms or
prior cervical disease require diagnostic evaluation rather than routine screening
intervals.
Question 7
A 31-year-old woman reports postcoital bleeding. Pelvic examination reveals a
friable cervix. Which is the most appropriate next step?
A. Repeat evaluation in one year
B. Perform diagnostic evaluation despite routine screening schedule
C. Schedule HPV vaccination
D. Delay evaluation until after menses
Answer: B
Rationale: Symptomatic patients require diagnostic evaluation regardless of
routine screening recommendations. Postcoital bleeding may indicate cervical
pathology, infection, or malignancy and warrants further assessment.
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
100% GUARANTEED PASS!!
<LATEST VERSION>
Question 1
A 27-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit. She reports that the first
day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was exactly 10 weeks ago. She has mild
nausea but is tolerating oral fluids. Which assessment finding is most consistent
with her gestational age?
A. Fetal heart tones are routinely heard with a fetoscope.
B. The uterine fundus is palpable midway between the symphysis pubis and
umbilicus.
C. The uterus is approximately the size of a grapefruit and remains within the
pelvis.
D. Quickening is expected in all pregnancies.
Answer: C
Rationale: At approximately 10 weeks' gestation, the uterus enlarges to about the
size of a grapefruit but remains a pelvic organ. Fetal heart tones are generally
detected by Doppler around 10–12 weeks, while a fetoscope is typically useful
after 18–20 weeks. The fundus reaches midway between the symphysis and
umbilicus around 16 weeks. Quickening commonly occurs between 16–20 weeks.
,Question 2
A 34-year-old woman with obesity (BMI 36 kg/m²) reports irregular vaginal
bleeding. She has a history of chronic anovulation and has never been pregnant.
Which condition is she at greatest risk for?
A. Cervical carcinoma
B. Endometrial carcinoma
C. Vulvar carcinoma
D. Gestational trophoblastic disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Obesity and chronic anovulation expose the endometrium to prolonged
unopposed estrogen, increasing the risk for Type I endometrial carcinoma.
Cervical and vulvar cancers are more strongly associated with persistent high-risk
HPV infection, while gestational trophoblastic disease occurs following pregnancy.
Question 3
A healthy 22-year-old woman requests contraception. She reports migraines
without aura, does not smoke, and has no significant medical history. Which
contraceptive method is appropriate?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pill
B. Copper IUD is contraindicated because she is nulliparous.
C. Estrogen-containing patch is contraindicated because of age.
D. Permanent sterilization is preferred for nulliparous women.
Answer: A
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives are appropriate for healthy,
nonsmoking women younger than 35 years who have migraines without aura.
Nulliparity is not a contraindication to IUD use. Estrogen-containing methods are
contraindicated primarily in migraine with aura or other significant risk factors.
,Question 4
A nurse practitioner performs Leopold's maneuvers on a woman at 37 weeks'
gestation. The fetal head is palpated in the maternal pelvis, and the fetal back is
smooth along the mother's left side. Which fetal presentation is identified?
A. Breech
B. Cephalic, left occiput anterior
C. Shoulder presentation
D. Transverse lie
Answer: B
Rationale: A fetal head located in the pelvis indicates cephalic presentation. A
smooth back on the maternal left side is consistent with a left occiput anterior
position, the most favorable position for vaginal birth.
Question 5
A 30-year-old pregnant woman at 11 weeks reports severe nausea and vomiting.
She has lost 8 pounds in 3 weeks and has ketones in her urine. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Normal morning sickness
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by persistent vomiting
causing dehydration, ketonuria, electrolyte disturbances, and weight loss. Typical
morning sickness rarely produces these complications.
, Question 6
A 29-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening. She has no
symptoms, no previous abnormal Pap tests, and is otherwise healthy. According to
current screening recommendations, cervical cytology guidelines primarily apply
to which patient population?
A. Women with unexplained postmenopausal bleeding
B. Women with active abnormal vaginal bleeding
C. Asymptomatic women eligible for routine screening
D. Women treated previously for cervical cancer
Answer: C
Rationale: Routine cervical cancer screening recommendations apply to
asymptomatic women eligible for preventive screening. Women with symptoms or
prior cervical disease require diagnostic evaluation rather than routine screening
intervals.
Question 7
A 31-year-old woman reports postcoital bleeding. Pelvic examination reveals a
friable cervix. Which is the most appropriate next step?
A. Repeat evaluation in one year
B. Perform diagnostic evaluation despite routine screening schedule
C. Schedule HPV vaccination
D. Delay evaluation until after menses
Answer: B
Rationale: Symptomatic patients require diagnostic evaluation regardless of
routine screening recommendations. Postcoital bleeding may indicate cervical
pathology, infection, or malignancy and warrants further assessment.
