ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2026/2027 | 100
Practice Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed
Rationales
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates fluid
overload?
A. Dry mucous membranes B. Weight loss of 1 kg C. Bilateral crackles in the lungs D.
Decreased jugular venous pressure
Answer: C. Bilateral crackles in the lungs
Rationale: Crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common manifestation of
heart failure and fluid overload.
2. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) B. A client reporting sudden chest pain and
shortness of breath C. A client requesting pain medication D. A client awaiting discharge
instructions
Answer: B. A client reporting sudden chest pain and shortness of breath
Rationale: Chest pain with dyspnoea may indicate a life-threatening condition such as
myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism.
3. A nurse is teaching a client taking warfarin. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I’ll take aspirin for headaches.” B. “I’ll report unusual bruising.” C. “I’ll eat more spinach
every day.” D. “I’ll stop taking the medication if I feel better.”
Answer: B. “I’ll report unusual bruising.”
Rationale: Unusual bruising may indicate excessive anticoagulation and should be
reported promptly.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with muscle weakness and
cardiac dysrhythmias?
A. Hypercalcaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hypermagnesaemia D. Hyponatraemia
Answer: B. Hypokalaemia
Rationale: Low potassium affects skeletal and cardiac muscle function, increasing the risk
of dysrhythmias.
,5. A postoperative client suddenly becomes restless and confused. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Document the findings. B. Assess oxygen saturation. C. Administer pain medication. D.
Encourage fluids.
Answer: B. Assess oxygen saturation.
Rationale: Restlessness and confusion may be early signs of hypoxia.
6. Which action by the nurse demonstrates proper infection control?
A. Recapping used needles B. Performing hand hygiene before and after client contact C.
Wearing sterile gloves for every procedure D. Reusing disposable masks
Answer: B. Performing hand hygiene before and after client contact
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective method of preventing infection.
7. A client with diabetes reports shakiness and sweating. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer insulin. B. Check the blood glucose level. C. Notify the provider. D. Restrict
fluids.
Answer: B. Check the blood glucose level.
Rationale: These are signs of hypoglycaemia; confirm the glucose level before intervention.
8. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. BP 118/74 mm Hg B. HR 78/min C. Respiratory rate 8/min after morphine administration
D. Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)
Answer: C. Respiratory rate 8/min after morphine administration
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a serious adverse effect of opioids.
9. Which food should a client taking MAOIs avoid?
A. Fresh apples B. Aged cheese C. Carrots D. White rice
Answer: B. Aged cheese
Rationale: Tyramine-rich foods can trigger a hypertensive crisis.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a blood glucose of 48 mg/dL who is awake. What
should the nurse administer?
A. IV insulin B. 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates C. Glucagon IM immediately D. Water only
, Answer: B. 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates
Rationale: Conscious clients with hypoglycaemia should receive 15 g of rapid-acting
carbohydrates.
11. Which laboratory value indicates effective heparin therapy?
A. Elevated INR B. Therapeutic aPTT C. Elevated haemoglobin D. Increased platelet count
Answer: B. Therapeutic aPTT
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT).
12. A nurse is caring for a client receiving furosemide. Which laboratory value should be
monitored closely?
A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Cholesterol D. Bilirubin
Answer: A. Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide can cause potassium loss.
13. Which client is at greatest risk for developing a pressure injury?
A. A client who ambulates independently B. A client on prolonged bed rest C. A client with
seasonal allergies D. A client with controlled hypertension
Answer: B. A client on prolonged bed rest
Rationale: Immobility is a major risk factor for pressure injuries.
14. Which action is appropriate when administering eye drops?
A. Instil drops directly onto the cornea. B. Pull the lower eyelid down to form a conjunctival
sac. C. Ask the client to blink repeatedly. D. Touch the dropper tip to the eye.
Answer: B. Pull the lower eyelid down to form a conjunctival sac.
Rationale: This promotes proper medication administration while preventing injury.
15. Which finding indicates a positive Trousseau’s sign?
A. Facial twitching B. Carpal spasm during blood pressure cuff inflation C. Slow heart rate
D. Foot drop
Answer: B. Carpal spasm during blood pressure cuff inflation
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign indicates hypocalcaemia.
Practice Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed
Rationales
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates fluid
overload?
A. Dry mucous membranes B. Weight loss of 1 kg C. Bilateral crackles in the lungs D.
Decreased jugular venous pressure
Answer: C. Bilateral crackles in the lungs
Rationale: Crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common manifestation of
heart failure and fluid overload.
2. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) B. A client reporting sudden chest pain and
shortness of breath C. A client requesting pain medication D. A client awaiting discharge
instructions
Answer: B. A client reporting sudden chest pain and shortness of breath
Rationale: Chest pain with dyspnoea may indicate a life-threatening condition such as
myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism.
3. A nurse is teaching a client taking warfarin. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I’ll take aspirin for headaches.” B. “I’ll report unusual bruising.” C. “I’ll eat more spinach
every day.” D. “I’ll stop taking the medication if I feel better.”
Answer: B. “I’ll report unusual bruising.”
Rationale: Unusual bruising may indicate excessive anticoagulation and should be
reported promptly.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with muscle weakness and
cardiac dysrhythmias?
A. Hypercalcaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hypermagnesaemia D. Hyponatraemia
Answer: B. Hypokalaemia
Rationale: Low potassium affects skeletal and cardiac muscle function, increasing the risk
of dysrhythmias.
,5. A postoperative client suddenly becomes restless and confused. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Document the findings. B. Assess oxygen saturation. C. Administer pain medication. D.
Encourage fluids.
Answer: B. Assess oxygen saturation.
Rationale: Restlessness and confusion may be early signs of hypoxia.
6. Which action by the nurse demonstrates proper infection control?
A. Recapping used needles B. Performing hand hygiene before and after client contact C.
Wearing sterile gloves for every procedure D. Reusing disposable masks
Answer: B. Performing hand hygiene before and after client contact
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the most effective method of preventing infection.
7. A client with diabetes reports shakiness and sweating. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer insulin. B. Check the blood glucose level. C. Notify the provider. D. Restrict
fluids.
Answer: B. Check the blood glucose level.
Rationale: These are signs of hypoglycaemia; confirm the glucose level before intervention.
8. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. BP 118/74 mm Hg B. HR 78/min C. Respiratory rate 8/min after morphine administration
D. Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)
Answer: C. Respiratory rate 8/min after morphine administration
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a serious adverse effect of opioids.
9. Which food should a client taking MAOIs avoid?
A. Fresh apples B. Aged cheese C. Carrots D. White rice
Answer: B. Aged cheese
Rationale: Tyramine-rich foods can trigger a hypertensive crisis.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a blood glucose of 48 mg/dL who is awake. What
should the nurse administer?
A. IV insulin B. 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates C. Glucagon IM immediately D. Water only
, Answer: B. 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates
Rationale: Conscious clients with hypoglycaemia should receive 15 g of rapid-acting
carbohydrates.
11. Which laboratory value indicates effective heparin therapy?
A. Elevated INR B. Therapeutic aPTT C. Elevated haemoglobin D. Increased platelet count
Answer: B. Therapeutic aPTT
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT).
12. A nurse is caring for a client receiving furosemide. Which laboratory value should be
monitored closely?
A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Cholesterol D. Bilirubin
Answer: A. Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide can cause potassium loss.
13. Which client is at greatest risk for developing a pressure injury?
A. A client who ambulates independently B. A client on prolonged bed rest C. A client with
seasonal allergies D. A client with controlled hypertension
Answer: B. A client on prolonged bed rest
Rationale: Immobility is a major risk factor for pressure injuries.
14. Which action is appropriate when administering eye drops?
A. Instil drops directly onto the cornea. B. Pull the lower eyelid down to form a conjunctival
sac. C. Ask the client to blink repeatedly. D. Touch the dropper tip to the eye.
Answer: B. Pull the lower eyelid down to form a conjunctival sac.
Rationale: This promotes proper medication administration while preventing injury.
15. Which finding indicates a positive Trousseau’s sign?
A. Facial twitching B. Carpal spasm during blood pressure cuff inflation C. Slow heart rate
D. Foot drop
Answer: B. Carpal spasm during blood pressure cuff inflation
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign indicates hypocalcaemia.
