ATLS 10th Edition Post Test exam
Questions and Verified Answers
With rationales 2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. In the 10th edition of ATLS, what is the recommended sequence
for the primary survey and initial resuscitation?
A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
B) Catastrophic hemorrhage, Airway, Breathing, Circulation,
Disability, Exposure
C) Airway, Breathing, Circulation with hemorrhage control,
Disability, Exposure
D) Scene safety, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability
Answer: B
Rationale: ATLS 10th Edition incorporates catastrophic hemorrhage
control (C-ABC) into the primary survey sequence, reflecting modern
Tactical Combat Casualty Care and civilian trauma adaptations.
2. A 30-year-old male presents with a gunshot wound to the thigh
and brisk, bright red bleeding. What is the most appropriate
immediate action?
A) Insert two large-bore IVs
B) Apply direct pressure or a tourniquet
C) Intubate the patient
D) Administer 2L of isotonic crystalloid
Answer: B
Rationale: Catastrophic external hemorrhage (C) must be addressed
immediately before airway (A) in the primary survey. Direct pressure
is the first step, followed rapidly by tourniquet application if the
bleeding is limb-threatening and uncontrolled.
3. Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of hypoxia
in a trauma patient?
A) Cyanosis
B) Tachypnea
C) Agitation and altered mental status
D) Hypertension
,Answer: C
Rationale: Altered mental status (agitation, confusion) is an early
and sensitive indicator of hypoxia or hypoperfusion. Cyanosis is a
late sign, and tachypnea can be caused by pain or anxiety.
4. During the primary survey, a patient is found to have a gurgling
sound on inspiration. What is the first maneuver to secure the
airway?
A) Nasotracheal intubation
B) Oropharyngeal suctioning and manual clearance
C) Surgical cricothyroidotomy
D) Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
Answer: B
Rationale: Before definitive airway management, the airway must be
cleared of blood, vomit, or foreign bodies using suction and manual
maneuvers.
5. A patient with severe facial trauma requires a definitive airway.
Which method is contraindicated?
A) Surgical cricothyroidotomy
B) Orotracheal intubation with rapid sequence intubation (RSI)
C) Nasotracheal intubation
D) Supraglottic airway device as a bridge
Answer: C
Rationale: Nasotracheal intubation is contraindicated in patients
with severe midface trauma due to the risk of the tube passing
through the cribriform plate into the cranial vault.
6. What is the recommended initial fluid bolus for an adult trauma
patient in shock without obvious external bleeding?
A) 500 mL of Lactated Ringer's
B) 1 Liter of 0.9% Normal Saline
C) 1 Liter of Lactated Ringer's
D) 250 mL of 3% Hypertonic saline
, Answer: C
Rationale: ATLS recommends an initial bolus of 1 liter of warmed
isotonic crystalloid (Lactated Ringer's preferred over Normal Saline
due to the risk of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis with the latter).
7. Which of the following is an indication for a definitive airway in a
trauma patient?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13
B) Apnea
C) Isolated closed femur fracture
D) Systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Apnea is an absolute indication for a definitive airway.
Other indications include inability to maintain an airway, need to
protect the airway (GCS ≤ 8), or hypoxia despite supplemental
oxygen.
8. A trauma patient has a GCS score of 7. What is the target
oxygenation and ventilation parameters to prevent secondary brain
injury?
A) PaO2 > 60 mmHg, PaCO2 35-40 mmHg
B) PaO2 > 60 mmHg, PaCO2 30-35 mmHg
C) PaO2 > 80 mmHg, PaCO2 35-40 mmHg
D) PaO2 > 80 mmHg, PaCO2 25-30 mmHg
Answer: C
Rationale: ATLS 10 emphasizes avoiding hypoxia (keep PaO2 > 80)
and avoiding hyperventilation. Normocapnia (PaCO2 35-40) is
recommended unless herniation is suspected.
9. What is the most common cause of shock in a trauma patient?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Hypovolemia from blood loss
D) Neurogenic shock
Questions and Verified Answers
With rationales 2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. In the 10th edition of ATLS, what is the recommended sequence
for the primary survey and initial resuscitation?
A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure
B) Catastrophic hemorrhage, Airway, Breathing, Circulation,
Disability, Exposure
C) Airway, Breathing, Circulation with hemorrhage control,
Disability, Exposure
D) Scene safety, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability
Answer: B
Rationale: ATLS 10th Edition incorporates catastrophic hemorrhage
control (C-ABC) into the primary survey sequence, reflecting modern
Tactical Combat Casualty Care and civilian trauma adaptations.
2. A 30-year-old male presents with a gunshot wound to the thigh
and brisk, bright red bleeding. What is the most appropriate
immediate action?
A) Insert two large-bore IVs
B) Apply direct pressure or a tourniquet
C) Intubate the patient
D) Administer 2L of isotonic crystalloid
Answer: B
Rationale: Catastrophic external hemorrhage (C) must be addressed
immediately before airway (A) in the primary survey. Direct pressure
is the first step, followed rapidly by tourniquet application if the
bleeding is limb-threatening and uncontrolled.
3. Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of hypoxia
in a trauma patient?
A) Cyanosis
B) Tachypnea
C) Agitation and altered mental status
D) Hypertension
,Answer: C
Rationale: Altered mental status (agitation, confusion) is an early
and sensitive indicator of hypoxia or hypoperfusion. Cyanosis is a
late sign, and tachypnea can be caused by pain or anxiety.
4. During the primary survey, a patient is found to have a gurgling
sound on inspiration. What is the first maneuver to secure the
airway?
A) Nasotracheal intubation
B) Oropharyngeal suctioning and manual clearance
C) Surgical cricothyroidotomy
D) Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
Answer: B
Rationale: Before definitive airway management, the airway must be
cleared of blood, vomit, or foreign bodies using suction and manual
maneuvers.
5. A patient with severe facial trauma requires a definitive airway.
Which method is contraindicated?
A) Surgical cricothyroidotomy
B) Orotracheal intubation with rapid sequence intubation (RSI)
C) Nasotracheal intubation
D) Supraglottic airway device as a bridge
Answer: C
Rationale: Nasotracheal intubation is contraindicated in patients
with severe midface trauma due to the risk of the tube passing
through the cribriform plate into the cranial vault.
6. What is the recommended initial fluid bolus for an adult trauma
patient in shock without obvious external bleeding?
A) 500 mL of Lactated Ringer's
B) 1 Liter of 0.9% Normal Saline
C) 1 Liter of Lactated Ringer's
D) 250 mL of 3% Hypertonic saline
, Answer: C
Rationale: ATLS recommends an initial bolus of 1 liter of warmed
isotonic crystalloid (Lactated Ringer's preferred over Normal Saline
due to the risk of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis with the latter).
7. Which of the following is an indication for a definitive airway in a
trauma patient?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13
B) Apnea
C) Isolated closed femur fracture
D) Systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Apnea is an absolute indication for a definitive airway.
Other indications include inability to maintain an airway, need to
protect the airway (GCS ≤ 8), or hypoxia despite supplemental
oxygen.
8. A trauma patient has a GCS score of 7. What is the target
oxygenation and ventilation parameters to prevent secondary brain
injury?
A) PaO2 > 60 mmHg, PaCO2 35-40 mmHg
B) PaO2 > 60 mmHg, PaCO2 30-35 mmHg
C) PaO2 > 80 mmHg, PaCO2 35-40 mmHg
D) PaO2 > 80 mmHg, PaCO2 25-30 mmHg
Answer: C
Rationale: ATLS 10 emphasizes avoiding hypoxia (keep PaO2 > 80)
and avoiding hyperventilation. Normocapnia (PaCO2 35-40) is
recommended unless herniation is suspected.
9. What is the most common cause of shock in a trauma patient?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Hypovolemia from blood loss
D) Neurogenic shock
