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OHIO LIFE AND HEALTH INSURANCE EXAM– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST| DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF

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OHIO LIFE AND HEALTH INSURANCE EXAM– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST| DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF

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OHIO LIFE AND HEALTH INSURANCE EXAM– QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE |
EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST| DOWNLOAD
INSTANT PDF
1. An insurance agent visiting a prospective client's home uses high-pressure sales tactics
and implies that the state government endorses the specific life insurance policy being sold.
Which unfair trade practice has the agent committed?

A. Twisting
B. Defamation
C. Misrepresentation
D. Rebating

Misrepresentation involves making false or misleading statements regarding the benefits,
advantages, conditions, or terms of any insurance policy, or falsely implying governmental
approval or endorsement. Twisting involves unfair comparison to replace a policy, defamation
involves injuring another insurer's reputation, and rebating involves offering unlawful
inducements.

2. Which of the following policy provisions specifies that the application and the policy
itself constitute the entire contract between the insurer and the insured?

A. Insuring Clause
B. Entire Contract Clause
C. Consideration Clause
D. Incontestability Clause

The Entire Contract provision states that the policy document, attached application, and any
riders or endorsements constitute the complete agreement. This prevents either party from
altering the contract by referencing unwritten documents or oral agreements.

3. Under Ohio insurance law, what is the maximum grace period typically required for
individual life insurance policies payable on a monthly premium basis?

A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 31 days
D. 60 days

, State insurance laws mandate a minimum grace period of 31 days for individual life
insurance policies regardless of whether premiums are paid annually, semi-annually,
quarterly, or monthly, allowing the policy to remain in force during this window.

4. A producer collects the initial premium from an applicant, issues a conditional receipt,
and sends the application to the underwriting department. The applicant suffers a fatal
accident two days later before the policy is formally approved. How will the insurer
typically handle this claim?

A. The claim will be denied automatically because the policy was never formally issued.
B. The claim will be paid only if the underwriter would have approved the application
under standard risk guidelines.
C. The claim will be paid in full immediately regardless of underwriting status.
D. The premium will be refunded to the family with no further liability.

A conditional receipt provides coverage starting from the date of the receipt or medical exam,
provided that the applicant proves to be insurable as a standard risk for the requested coverage
under the insurer's underwriting rules.

5. Which type of term life insurance features level premiums throughout the policy term
while the face amount decreases annually?

A. Decreasing term
B. Increasing term
C. Level term
D. Renewable term

Decreasing term insurance is designed to cover financial obligations that reduce over time,
such as a mortgage or business loan, where the premium remains constant while the death
benefit declines annually to zero at the end of the term.

6. A client wants to purchase a permanent life insurance policy that builds cash value based
on the performance of a specific equity index, yet guarantees that the principal will not be
lost if the index drops. Which product fits this description?

A. Variable life insurance
B. Universal life insurance
C. Equity-indexed life insurance
D. Straight whole life insurance

Equity-indexed (or indexed universal) life insurance ties cash value interest crediting to a
stock market index like the S&P 500, offering a minimum guaranteed floor to protect against
market losses while allowing participation in market gains.

7. Which rider allows the policyowner to purchase additional amounts of permanent life
insurance at specified future dates without providing evidence of insurability?

,A. Payor Benefit Rider
B. Guaranteed Insurability Rider
C. Accidental Death Benefit Rider
D. Cost of Living Rider

The Guaranteed Insurability Rider gives the insured the option to purchase stated amounts of
additional insurance at specified ages or life events without proving insurability, protecting
against future uninsurability.

8. When a permanent life insurance policy lapses due to non-payment of premium, which
nonforfeiture option provides the highest immediate death benefit?

A. Cash surrender value
B. Reduced paid-up insurance
C. Extended term insurance
D. Automatic premium loan

Extended term insurance uses the policy's cash surrender value to purchase term insurance
with the exact same face amount as the original policy for as long a period as the cash value
will buy.

9. An insured intentionally conceals a material medical condition on a life insurance
application. Two years later, the insured dies of an unrelated cause. What can the insurer
do regarding the death benefit?

A. Deny the claim and rescind the policy due to material misrepresentation.
B. Pay the claim in full because the contestability period has expired.
C. Reduce the death benefit in proportion to the correct premium.
D. Cancel the policy retroactively with a full refund of all historical premiums.

Under the Incontestability Clause, after a life insurance policy has been in force for two years
during the insured's lifetime, the insurer cannot contest the validity of the contract or deny
claims based on misstatements or concealments in the application, except for non-payment of
premiums.

10. Which beneficiary designation ensures that if a primary beneficiary predeceases the
insured, the beneficiary's children will automatically inherit that share of the death
benefit?

A. Per capita
B. Per stirpes
C. Contingent
D. Revocable

, A per stirpes (by the branches) designation means that if a named beneficiary dies before the
insured, that beneficiary's share passes down to their surviving children or legal descendants
by right of representation.

11. An individual owns a traditional fixed annuity during the accumulation phase. How are
the interest earnings taxed during this period?

A. Taxed annually as ordinary income
B. Taxed annually as capital gains
C. Tax-deferred until distribution
D. Permanently tax-exempt

Interest and earnings inside an annuity grow on a tax-deferred basis during the accumulation
period, meaning taxes are not assessed until funds are actually withdrawn or distributed.

12. Which classification of health insurance policies permits the insurance company to
refuse renewal of the policy on any anniversary date or premium due date?

A. Noncancelable
B. Guaranteed renewable
C. Optionally renewable
D. Conditionally renewable

An optionally renewable policy grants the insurer the right to decline renewal of the contract
for any reason or no reason upon any premium due date or policy anniversary, usually with
advance notice.

13. A business owner purchases a Disability Overhead Expense (DOE) policy. What
specific business costs are covered under this type of contract?

A. The owner's lost personal salary and drawing account
B. Fixed overhead expenses such as rent, utilities, and employee salaries
C. The cost of purchasing a disabled partner's ownership share
D. Medical expenses incurred by the business owner during recovery

Disability Overhead Expense insurance reimburses small business owners for ongoing,
normal business operating expenses—such as rent, electricity, equipment leases, and staff
wages—while the owner is disabled, but it does not replace the owner's personal income.

14. Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), up to what age may a dependent child remain
covered under a parent's group health insurance plan?

A. Age 18
B. Age 21
C. Age 26
D. Age 30

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