CPMA Study Guide UPDATED ACTUAL Exam 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
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Graded A+
QUESTION 1
Which of the following best defines the primary purpose of medical
auditing in a healthcare organization?
A) To increase the number of patient visits
B) To ensure compliance with coding guidelines and detect billing errors
C) To reduce the salaries of healthcare providers
D) To promote the use of paper-based records
Answer: B
Explanation: Medical auditing is fundamentally a quality assurance and
compliance function. Its primary purpose is to systematically review
medical records, coding, and billing processes to ensure adherence to
established guidelines, detect errors or fraud, and promote accurate
reimbursement. It is not designed to increase patient volume, reduce
staff compensation, or mandate specific record-keeping formats.
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QUESTION 2
The “standards” component of the COSO internal control framework
refers to:
A) The policies and procedures that ensure accurate financial reporting
B) The entity’s commitment to integrity and ethical values
C) The process of identifying and analyzing risks
D) The physical security of healthcare data
Answer: B
Explanation: The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO)
framework includes five components: Control Environment, Risk
Assessment, Control Activities, Information and Communication, and
Monitoring. The Control Environment, often called “standards,”
encompasses the organization’s ethical culture, integrity, and
commitment to competence. It sets the tone at the top and provides the
foundation for all other internal control components.
QUESTION 3
Which audit type is most appropriate for evaluating a provider’s
adherence to documentation requirements for Evaluation and
Management services?
A) Operational audit
B) Compliance audit
C) Financial audit
D) Investigative audit
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Answer: B
Explanation: A compliance audit specifically examines whether an entity
adheres to external laws, regulations, and internal policies. Evaluating
E/M documentation against coding and billing requirements falls
squarely within compliance auditing. Operational audits focus on
efficiency and effectiveness, financial audits on the accuracy of financial
statements, and investigative audits on suspected fraud or misconduct.
QUESTION 4
In the context of medical auditing, the term “prospective audit” refers
to:
A) An audit conducted after claims have been paid
B) An audit conducted before the claim is submitted
C) An audit that examines only inpatient records
D) An audit that focuses on physician credentialing
Answer: B
Explanation: Prospective audits occur before claims are submitted to
payers. They are preventive in nature, allowing errors to be identified
and corrected prior to billing. This contrasts with retrospective audits,
which occur after payment and may result in recoupments or penalties.
The timing, not the setting or subject matter, distinguishes the audit
type.
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QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a key element of the OIG’s Compliance
Program Guidance for individual and small group physician practices?
A) Conducting internal monitoring and auditing
B) Outsourcing all billing functions
C) Eliminating the use of diagnosis codes
D) Focusing solely on Medicare Part B claims
Answer: A
Explanation: The OIG’s guidance emphasizes seven core elements,
including conducting internal monitoring and auditing, implementing
written policies and procedures, designating a compliance officer,
training staff, responding appropriately to detected offenses, and
developing corrective action plans. Outsourcing billing or limiting focus
to one payer type does not align with comprehensive compliance
program recommendations.
QUESTION 6
The “fraud and abuse” laws most relevant to medical auditing include
all of the following EXCEPT:
A) The False Claims Act
B) The Anti-Kickback Statute
C) The Stark Law
D) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
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