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NURS 5432 FNP 1 |All Exams Study Notes (This document covers the entirety of the class) University of Texas, Arlington

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NURS 5432 FNP 1 |All Exams Study Notes (This document covers the entirety of the class) University of Texas, Arlington

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NURS 5432 FNP 1 |All Exams Study Notes (This
document covers the entirety of the class)
University of Texas, Arlington

SECTION I: MIDTERM EXAM – MODULES 1–6
Foundations of Family Practice, Growth & Development,
Pediatric Health, Women's Health, Adult/Geriatric
Health, & Immunizations


Module 1: Foundations of Family Practice & Health Promotion
1. A Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) is primarily responsible for which role in
primary care?
A. Performing only acute care procedures
B. Providing holistic, continuous care across the lifespan
C. Managing hospital inpatient units
D. Specializing in surgical interventions
Answer: B. Providing holistic, continuous care across the lifespan
Rationale: FNPs focus on comprehensive, continuous, and preventive care across
all age groups. Their role includes health promotion, disease prevention, and
chronic disease management—not just acute or inpatient care .


2. Which principle best defines evidence-based practice (EBP)?
A. Using only clinical experience
B. Using research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient preferences

,C. Following physician instructions exclusively
D. Using outdated clinical guidelines
Answer: B. Using research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient preferences
Rationale: EBP integrates best research evidence, clinician expertise, and patient
values, ensuring optimal patient-centered care .


3. What is the gold standard for pain assessment?
A. Physical examination findings
B. Patient's self-report
C. Imaging studies
D. Laboratory results
Answer: B. Patient's self-report
Rationale: The patient's self-report is the gold standard for pain assessment. Pain
is subjective, and the patient's description of their experience is the most reliable
indicator.


4. A 40-year-old woman presents with scaling, crusting, and redness in her
eyelid. She reports trouble driving when it's sunny. What is the first-line
treatment?
A. Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID
B. Tetracycline 250 mg QID
C. Cold moist compress
D. Lid scrub with baby shampoo
Answer: D. Lid scrub with baby shampoo
Rationale: Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid margins. First-line treatment is
conservative: warm compresses and lid hygiene with baby shampoo. Oral
antibiotics are reserved for resistant or persistent cases .

,5. A patient presents with a yellowish raised lesion on the nasal conjunctiva that
does NOT affect the cornea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pinguecula
B. Pterygium
C. Cataract
D. Conjunctival hemorrhage
Answer: A. Pinguecula
Rationale: A pinguecula is a yellowish, raised lesion on the bulbar conjunctiva,
typically on the nasal side. It does NOT extend onto the cornea, unlike a
pterygium .


6. Which symptom is most characteristic of allergic conjunctivitis?
A. Preauricular lymphadenopathy
B. Bilateral itching and watery discharge
C. Thick yellow discharge
D. Unilateral redness with crusting
Answer: B. Bilateral itching and watery discharge
Rationale: Allergic conjunctivitis is typically bilateral with intense itching, watery
discharge, and redness, often associated with seasonal allergies .


7. How is a corneal abrasion diagnosed?
A. Slit lamp examination
B. Fluorescein stain
C. Tonometry
D. Funduscopic exam
Answer: B. Fluorescein stain

, Rationale: Fluorescein stain highlights corneal epithelial defects, making it the
diagnostic test of choice for corneal abrasions .


8. What is the normal intraocular pressure (IOP) range?
A. 5–10 mmHg
B. 10–21 mmHg
C. 22–30 mmHg
D. 30–40 mmHg
Answer: B. 10–21 mmHg
Rationale: Normal IOP is 10-21 mmHg. Pressures above 21 mmHg are considered
elevated and concerning for glaucoma .


9. What is seen on funduscopic exam of a patient with glaucoma?
A. Cherry-red spot
B. Cupping of the optic disc with cup-to-disc ratio >0.5
C. Cotton wool spots
D. Papilledema
Answer: B. Cupping of the optic disc with cup-to-disc ratio >0.5
Rationale: Glaucoma causes progressive optic nerve damage, seen as optic disc
cupping. A cup-to-disc ratio >0.5 is concerning .


10. A patient with hearing loss has a Weber test that lateralizes to the right ear;
Rinne test shows AC > BC bilaterally. What is the interpretation?
A. Right sensorineural loss
B. Left sensorineural loss
C. Right conductive loss
D. Normal

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