BIO 322 Exam 3 V1 | BIO 322 Applied
Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (BIO322 Exam 3) | Grand Canyon
University
1. A patient is diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. What is the primary underlying
pathophysiological mechanism of this disease?
A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues.
B. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C. Overproduction of glucagon by alpha cells.
D. Decreased glucose absorption in the small intestine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus results from a T-cell mediated autoimmune attack on
the beta cells within the Islets of Langerhans. This leads to an absolute deficiency of insulin
production, making the patient dependent on exogenous insulin. Without insulin, the body
cannot move glucose into cells, leading to hyperglycemia and fatty acid metabolism.
2. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of Nephrotic Syndrome?
A. Gross hematuria and hypertension.
B. Kussmaul respirations and metabolic acidosis.
C. Oliguria and increased serum creatinine.
,D. Proteinuria exceeding 3.5 g/day and hypoalbuminemia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic Syndrome is defined by massive proteinuria due to increased
glomerular permeability to plasma proteins. This loss of albumin leads to
hypoalbuminemia, which decreases oncotic pressure and results in generalized edema. It is
distinct from Nephritic syndrome, which is more commonly associated with hematuria.
3. A patient presents with a ‘moon face,’ buffalo hump, and central obesity. Which condition
should the clinician suspect?
A. Cushing’s Syndrome
B. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
C. Addison’s Disease
D. Diabetes Insipidus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing’s Syndrome is caused by excessive levels of cortisol, often due to an
adenoma or exogenous steroid use. The excess cortisol alters fat distribution, leading to the
characteristic buffalo hump and moon face. Additionally, patients often exhibit thinning
skin, purple striae, and impaired glucose tolerance.
4. Select all that apply: Which of the following are clinical manifestations of Cushing’s
Syndrome? (Select all that apply)
A. Hypertension
, B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Purple striae on the abdomen
E. Osteoporosis
F. Weight loss and hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome involves hypercortisolism which causes increased
gluconeogenesis leading to hyperglycemia and protein wasting which results in
osteoporosis and purple striae. Cortisol also has mineralocorticoid effects at high levels,
leading to sodium retention (hypertension) and potassium excretion (hypokalemia).
Weight loss and hypoglycemia are conversely associated with adrenal insufficiency, not
Cushing’s.
5. What is the primary cause of the polyuria observed in patients with Diabetes Insipidus?
A. Deficiency or lack of response to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH).
B. Excessive glucose in the urine causing osmotic diuresis.
C. High levels of aldosterone causing water excretion.
D. Infection of the bladder causing frequency.
Correct Answer: A
Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (BIO322 Exam 3) | Grand Canyon
University
1. A patient is diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. What is the primary underlying
pathophysiological mechanism of this disease?
A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues.
B. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C. Overproduction of glucagon by alpha cells.
D. Decreased glucose absorption in the small intestine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus results from a T-cell mediated autoimmune attack on
the beta cells within the Islets of Langerhans. This leads to an absolute deficiency of insulin
production, making the patient dependent on exogenous insulin. Without insulin, the body
cannot move glucose into cells, leading to hyperglycemia and fatty acid metabolism.
2. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of Nephrotic Syndrome?
A. Gross hematuria and hypertension.
B. Kussmaul respirations and metabolic acidosis.
C. Oliguria and increased serum creatinine.
,D. Proteinuria exceeding 3.5 g/day and hypoalbuminemia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic Syndrome is defined by massive proteinuria due to increased
glomerular permeability to plasma proteins. This loss of albumin leads to
hypoalbuminemia, which decreases oncotic pressure and results in generalized edema. It is
distinct from Nephritic syndrome, which is more commonly associated with hematuria.
3. A patient presents with a ‘moon face,’ buffalo hump, and central obesity. Which condition
should the clinician suspect?
A. Cushing’s Syndrome
B. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
C. Addison’s Disease
D. Diabetes Insipidus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing’s Syndrome is caused by excessive levels of cortisol, often due to an
adenoma or exogenous steroid use. The excess cortisol alters fat distribution, leading to the
characteristic buffalo hump and moon face. Additionally, patients often exhibit thinning
skin, purple striae, and impaired glucose tolerance.
4. Select all that apply: Which of the following are clinical manifestations of Cushing’s
Syndrome? (Select all that apply)
A. Hypertension
, B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Purple striae on the abdomen
E. Osteoporosis
F. Weight loss and hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome involves hypercortisolism which causes increased
gluconeogenesis leading to hyperglycemia and protein wasting which results in
osteoporosis and purple striae. Cortisol also has mineralocorticoid effects at high levels,
leading to sodium retention (hypertension) and potassium excretion (hypokalemia).
Weight loss and hypoglycemia are conversely associated with adrenal insufficiency, not
Cushing’s.
5. What is the primary cause of the polyuria observed in patients with Diabetes Insipidus?
A. Deficiency or lack of response to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH).
B. Excessive glucose in the urine causing osmotic diuresis.
C. High levels of aldosterone causing water excretion.
D. Infection of the bladder causing frequency.
Correct Answer: A
