NURS 5334 Final Exam V1 | NURS 5334
Advanced Pharmacology Guide
2026/2027 | Actual Q&A with Rationale
(NURS5334 Final Exam) | University of
Texas at Arlington
1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
B. The State Board of Nursing in each state
C. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D. The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
Answer: B
Rationale: Prescriptive authority for nurse practitioners is regulated by the State Board
of Nursing in each state. This is a key concept for understanding scope of practice in
advanced pharmacology .
2. Which of the following is NOT a required component of a valid prescription?
A. Patient name and date of birth
B. Name of drug and strength
C. Patient's insurance information
D. Directions for use (route, frequency, indication)
Answer: C
Rationale: Required components of a valid prescription include: physician's name,
address, and telephone number; DEA number for controlled substances; patient name
and DOB; date written; drug name and strength (avoid trailing zeroes, use leading
zeroes); directions with route and frequency; number of refills; quantity; signature; and
NPI number. Insurance information is not required on the prescription .
,3. Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
A. Heroin
B. Oxycodone
C. Codeine
D. Alprazolam
Answer: B
Rationale: Drug schedules range from Schedule I (most addictive) to Schedule V (least
addictive). Schedule I includes heroin, LSD, and marijuana. Schedule II includes
oxycodone, hydrocodone, and methamphetamines. Schedule III includes codeine,
ketamine, and testosterone. Schedule IV includes alprazolam, diazepam, and tramadol.
Schedule V includes antidiarrheals, antitussives, and pregabalin .
4. What is the purpose of "tall man lettering" in prescribing?
A. To indicate the patient's height
B. To highlight dissimilarities between look-alike drug names
C. To indicate the drug's strength
D. To indicate the number of refills
Answer: B
Rationale: Tall man lettering is used to highlight dissimilarities between look-alike drug
names to prevent medication errors. For example, "DOPamine" and "DOBUTamine" use
uppercase letters to distinguish the drugs .
5. A drug that produces receptor stimulation with a conformational change every
time it binds is called:
A. A partial agonist
B. An antagonist
C. An agonist
D. An inverse agonist
Answer: C
Rationale: An agonist produces receptor stimulation with a conformational change
,every time it binds. A partial agonist has properties between agonists and antagonists,
producing a submaximal effect. An antagonist has affinity for the receptor but NO
intrinsic activity, blocking the action of other drugs .
6. A drug that has an effect, but no matter how high of a dose, cannot produce a
full agonist effect is called:
A. An agonist
B. A partial agonist
C. An antagonist
D. An inverse agonist
Answer: B
Rationale: A partial agonist has properties between agonists and antagonists,
producing a submaximal effect. It stimulates only some of the receptors. An antagonist
has affinity for the receptor but NO intrinsic activity .
7. Naloxone (Narcan) is an example of which type of drug?
A. Agonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Antagonist
D. Inverse agonist
Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone is an antagonist—it has affinity for opioid receptors but lacks
intrinsic activity. It blocks the action of opioid agonists and is used to reverse opioid
overdose .
8. The therapeutic range is defined as:
A. The time required for the drug to decline by 50%
B. The percentage of dose that survives first-pass metabolism
C. The range between minimum effective concentration and toxic concentration
D. The amount of drug needed to produce a given effect
, Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic range is the range between the minimum effective
concentration and the toxic concentration. A wider therapeutic range is better and
easier to control. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range (e.g., warfarin, digoxin, lithium)
require close monitoring .
9. Bioavailability is defined as:
A. The time required for the drug to decline by 50%
B. The percentage of dose of a drug that survives first-pass through the liver and
reaches the bloodstream
C. The range between effective and toxic concentrations
D. The amount of drug needed to produce a given effect
Answer: B
Rationale: Bioavailability is the percentage of the dose of a drug that survives first-pass
through the liver and reaches the bloodstream. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism
have low oral bioavailability .
10. Half-life is defined as:
A. The time required for the amount of drug to decline by 50%
B. The percentage of dose that reaches the bloodstream
C. The range between effective and toxic concentrations
D. The time required for the drug to reach peak effect
Answer: A
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the amount of drug to decline by 50%.
Drugs with a shorter half-life need to be administered more frequently. It takes
approximately 5 half-lives to eliminate a drug from the body .
11. A 75-year-old patient with renal impairment is prescribed a medication that is
primarily renally excreted. What pharmacokinetic parameter will most likely be
altered?
Advanced Pharmacology Guide
2026/2027 | Actual Q&A with Rationale
(NURS5334 Final Exam) | University of
Texas at Arlington
1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
B. The State Board of Nursing in each state
C. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D. The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
Answer: B
Rationale: Prescriptive authority for nurse practitioners is regulated by the State Board
of Nursing in each state. This is a key concept for understanding scope of practice in
advanced pharmacology .
2. Which of the following is NOT a required component of a valid prescription?
A. Patient name and date of birth
B. Name of drug and strength
C. Patient's insurance information
D. Directions for use (route, frequency, indication)
Answer: C
Rationale: Required components of a valid prescription include: physician's name,
address, and telephone number; DEA number for controlled substances; patient name
and DOB; date written; drug name and strength (avoid trailing zeroes, use leading
zeroes); directions with route and frequency; number of refills; quantity; signature; and
NPI number. Insurance information is not required on the prescription .
,3. Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
A. Heroin
B. Oxycodone
C. Codeine
D. Alprazolam
Answer: B
Rationale: Drug schedules range from Schedule I (most addictive) to Schedule V (least
addictive). Schedule I includes heroin, LSD, and marijuana. Schedule II includes
oxycodone, hydrocodone, and methamphetamines. Schedule III includes codeine,
ketamine, and testosterone. Schedule IV includes alprazolam, diazepam, and tramadol.
Schedule V includes antidiarrheals, antitussives, and pregabalin .
4. What is the purpose of "tall man lettering" in prescribing?
A. To indicate the patient's height
B. To highlight dissimilarities between look-alike drug names
C. To indicate the drug's strength
D. To indicate the number of refills
Answer: B
Rationale: Tall man lettering is used to highlight dissimilarities between look-alike drug
names to prevent medication errors. For example, "DOPamine" and "DOBUTamine" use
uppercase letters to distinguish the drugs .
5. A drug that produces receptor stimulation with a conformational change every
time it binds is called:
A. A partial agonist
B. An antagonist
C. An agonist
D. An inverse agonist
Answer: C
Rationale: An agonist produces receptor stimulation with a conformational change
,every time it binds. A partial agonist has properties between agonists and antagonists,
producing a submaximal effect. An antagonist has affinity for the receptor but NO
intrinsic activity, blocking the action of other drugs .
6. A drug that has an effect, but no matter how high of a dose, cannot produce a
full agonist effect is called:
A. An agonist
B. A partial agonist
C. An antagonist
D. An inverse agonist
Answer: B
Rationale: A partial agonist has properties between agonists and antagonists,
producing a submaximal effect. It stimulates only some of the receptors. An antagonist
has affinity for the receptor but NO intrinsic activity .
7. Naloxone (Narcan) is an example of which type of drug?
A. Agonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Antagonist
D. Inverse agonist
Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone is an antagonist—it has affinity for opioid receptors but lacks
intrinsic activity. It blocks the action of opioid agonists and is used to reverse opioid
overdose .
8. The therapeutic range is defined as:
A. The time required for the drug to decline by 50%
B. The percentage of dose that survives first-pass metabolism
C. The range between minimum effective concentration and toxic concentration
D. The amount of drug needed to produce a given effect
, Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic range is the range between the minimum effective
concentration and the toxic concentration. A wider therapeutic range is better and
easier to control. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range (e.g., warfarin, digoxin, lithium)
require close monitoring .
9. Bioavailability is defined as:
A. The time required for the drug to decline by 50%
B. The percentage of dose of a drug that survives first-pass through the liver and
reaches the bloodstream
C. The range between effective and toxic concentrations
D. The amount of drug needed to produce a given effect
Answer: B
Rationale: Bioavailability is the percentage of the dose of a drug that survives first-pass
through the liver and reaches the bloodstream. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism
have low oral bioavailability .
10. Half-life is defined as:
A. The time required for the amount of drug to decline by 50%
B. The percentage of dose that reaches the bloodstream
C. The range between effective and toxic concentrations
D. The time required for the drug to reach peak effect
Answer: A
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the amount of drug to decline by 50%.
Drugs with a shorter half-life need to be administered more frequently. It takes
approximately 5 half-lives to eliminate a drug from the body .
11. A 75-year-old patient with renal impairment is prescribed a medication that is
primarily renally excreted. What pharmacokinetic parameter will most likely be
altered?
