Complete Exam
2026-2027 • 50 Questions • 100% VERIFIED
Introduction
This assessment serves as a definitive examination evaluation resource for candidates preparing
for the Florida Laws & Rules (Dental Exam ADEX CDCA) Complete Exam (2026-2027). Designed to
measure core regulatory knowledge and professional readiness, this question bank rigorously
addresses key governing domains established under Florida Statute Chapter 466 and Florida
Administrative Code Rule Chapter 64B5. Key content domains evaluated include the Florida Dental
Statutory Framework, Florida Board of Dentistry Rules, Infection Control Standards, Professional
Conduct and Ethics, Licensure Requirements, Disciplinary Guidelines, and Prescribing Regulations.
Mastery of these legal frameworks is essential for obtaining state licensure, ensuring full statutory
compliance, maintaining high standards of clinical safety, and supporting ethical, high-quality
dental care delivery across all professional healthcare operations in Florida.
Question 1: Under Chapter 466 of the Florida Statutes, what is the official composition of the
Florida Board of Dentistry?
A) 11 members total: 7 licensed dentists, 2 licensed dental hygienists, and 2 laypersons.
B) 9 members total: 5 licensed dentists, 2 licensed dental hygienists, and 2 laypersons.
C) 11 members total: 8 licensed dentists, 1 licensed dental hygienist, and 2 laypersons.
D) 13 members total: 9 licensed dentists, 2 licensed dental hygienists, and 2 laypersons.
Correct Answer: A) 11 members total: 7 licensed dentists, 2 licensed dental hygienists,
and 2 laypersons.
Rationale: Florida Statute 466.004 establishes that the Florida Board of Dentistry consists of
11 members appointed by the Governor and confirmed by the Senate. The composition includes
7 actively licensed dentists, 2 actively licensed dental hygienists, and 2 laypersons (consumer
members) who are not connected to the dental profession.
Question 2: What is the mandatory continuing education (CE) requirement for a Florida-licensed
dentist during each biennial renewal period?
A) 20 credit hours every two years, including medical error prevention.
B) 30 credit hours every two years, including required mandatory courses.
C) 40 credit hours every two years, including domestic violence and medical errors.
D) 50 credit hours every two years, including CPR and human trafficking.
Correct Answer: B) 30 credit hours every two years, including required mandatory
courses.
, Rationale: Rule 64B5-12.013 of the Florida Administrative Code mandates that licensed
dentists complete a minimum of 30 credit hours of approved continuing education during each
two-year renewal biennium. This total includes mandatory subjects such as prevention of
medical errors, Florida dental law and rules, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
certification.
Question 3: How frequently must a Florida dental licensee complete a Board-approved 2-hour
course on domestic violence as part of continuing education?
A) Every single biennial renewal cycle without exception.
B) Only once upon initial licensure application in Florida.
C) Every third biennium (every 6 years) as part of the total required hours.
D) Every fourth biennium (every 8 years) in addition to standard CE credits.
Correct Answer: C) Every third biennium (every 6 years) as part of the total required
hours.
Rationale: Under Florida Statute 456.031 and Rule 64B5-12.013, a 2-hour continuing
education course on domestic violence is required every third biennial renewal period (every
six years). These two hours count toward the overall required biennium credit total.
Question 4: Which level of supervision is defined when a dentist diagnoses the condition,
authorizes the procedure, remains on the premises, and approves the work prior to patient
departure?
A) General supervision.
B) Indirect supervision.
C) Personal supervision.
D) Direct supervision.
Correct Answer: D) Direct supervision.
Rationale: Direct supervision requires that the dentist diagnoses the condition to be treated,
authorizes the procedure, remains on the premises while the procedure is performed, and
evaluates and approves the work performed by the dental auxiliary before the patient leaves
the facility.
Question 5: Which procedure can a licensed Florida dental hygienist perform under general
supervision for a patient of record?
A) Calculus removal, supragingival and subgingival scaling, and dental polishing.
B) Administration of local anesthesia via nerve block injection.
C) Placement of permanent amalgam and composite restorative fillings.
D) Gingival curettage requiring surgical scalpel excision of tissue.
Correct Answer: A) Calculus removal, supragingival and subgingival scaling, and dental
polishing.
Rationale: General supervision permits a dental hygienist to perform authorized procedures
(such as scaling, calculus removal, root planing, and polishing) on a patient of record even if the
, dentist is not physically present on the premises, provided the dentist authorized the treatment
within the designated statutory timeframe.
Question 6: What training standard must a dental assistant meet in Florida to legally perform
expanded duties under appropriate supervision?
A) Complete a 10-hour online orientation provided by any licensed dentist.
B) Complete a Board-approved expanded duties formal training program.
C) Complete a two-year associate degree in allied health sciences.
D) Pass the national board dental hygiene examination.
Correct Answer: B) Complete a Board-approved expanded duties formal training
program.
Rationale: Rule 64B5-16.005 specifies that dental assistants must successfully complete a
formal course or program approved by the Florida Board of Dentistry to obtain certification for
performing expanded duty functions.
Question 7: According to Florida Board of Dentistry rules on infection control, how often must
biological monitoring (spore testing) of heat sterilizers be conducted in a dental facility?
A) Daily before clinical operations begin.
B) Bi-weekly during operational periods.
C) At least once every 7 days (weekly).
D) Once every 30 calendar days.
Correct Answer: C) At least once every 7 days (weekly).
Rationale: Rule 64B5-13.003 mandates that heat sterilizers (autoclaves, dry heat, or chemical
vapor) used in dental offices must be monitored using biological indicators (spore tests) at least
weekly to confirm effectiveness and ensure patient safety.
Question 8: What is the proper infection control classification and treatment protocol for non-
critical instruments that touch intact skin only?
A) High-level chemical sterilant soaking for 10 hours minimum.
B) Steam heat sterilization under pressure after every patient contact.
C) Washing with unheated tap water and household detergent.
D) Intermediate-level disinfection with an EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant.
Correct Answer: D) Intermediate-level disinfection with an EPA-registered
tuberculocidal disinfectant.
Rationale: Non-critical environmental surfaces and items that come into contact only with
intact skin require cleaning followed by intermediate-level disinfection using an EPA-registered
hospital disinfectant with a tuberculocidal claim, or protection with impervious disposable
barriers.
Question 9: If an adverse occurrence occurs in a Florida dental office resulting in patient death or
emergency hospital admission, what is the initial reporting deadline to the Board?