LPN EXIT EXAM AND ANSWERS
COMPLETE PREPARATION GUIDE
LATEST UPDATE
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
134 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
LPN EXIT EXAM AND ANSWERS COMPLETE PREPARATION GUIDE LATEST UPDATE. It contains 134
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning
required to master the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 134 Questions
Foundations - Application - LPN EXIT AND Complete Preparation Guide Update Practical Nursing
Undergraduate YEAR 3 LPN EXIT Level
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Receiving Section B - Prescribed
Questions 1 to 34 Questions 35 to 68
Section C - Appropriate Section D - Priority
Questions 69 to 102 Questions 103 to 134
,Section A - Receiving
Q1.
A patient on a nitroglycerin drip for acute coronary syndrome is currently receiving 10
mcg/min. The bag contains 50 mg nitroglycerin in 250 mL D5W. The dose is increased by 5
mcg/min every 5 minutes until relief. What is the infusion rate in mL/hr for a dose of 20
mcg/min?
A. 3 mL/hr B. 6 mL/hr
C. 12 mL/hr D. 15 mL/hr
Correct: B - 6 mL/hr
Rationale:
Concentration = 50 mg/250 mL = 0.2 mg/mL = 200 mcg/mL. Dose 20 mcg/min = 1200
mcg/hr. Rate = = 6 mL/hr. Option A corresponds to 10 mcg/min, C to 40 mcg/min,
D to 50 mcg/min.
Q2.
A patient with sepsis has ABG: pH 7.30, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, HCO3- 16 mEq/L. Which
acid-base disorder is present?
A. Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory B. Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic
compensation compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis with full compensation D. Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
Correct: A - Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
Rationale:
pH <7.35 (acidosis), HCO3- low (metabolic), PaCO2 low (compensatory hyperventilation).
Because pH is still acidic, compensation is partial. Full compensation would normalize pH;
mixed acidosis would have high PaCO2.
Q3.
A laboring patient's fetal heart rate shows a gradual decrease starting at the peak of a
contraction and returning after contraction ends. Variability is minimal. What is the most
likely cause?
A. Head compression B. Cord compression
C. Uteroplacental insufficiency D. Fetal anemia
Correct: C - Uteroplacental insufficiency
Page 3
, Section A - Receiving
Rationale:
Late decelerations (gradual onset after contraction peak) indicate uteroplacental insufficiency.
Early decelerations mirror contractions (head compression). Variable decelerations are abrupt
(cord compression). Sinusoidal pattern indicates fetal anemia.
Q4.
According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, a patient in the stage of industry vs.
inferiority is most likely mastering which Piagetian cognitive skill?
A. Object permanence B. Conservation
C. Abstract reasoning D. Hypothetical-deductive reasoning
Correct: B - Conservation
Rationale:
Industry vs. inferiority corresponds to school age (6-12 years), which aligns with Piaget's
concrete operational stage where conservation is mastered. Object permanence is
sensorimotor (infancy). Abstract and hypothetical-deductive reasoning are formal operational
(adolescence).
Q5.
A patient on long-term haloperidol develops involuntary, repetitive movements of the
tongue, lips, and jaw. Which adverse effect is most likely?
A. Acute dystonia B. Akathisia
C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Correct: C - Tardive dyskinesia
Rationale:
Tardive dyskinesia occurs after prolonged antipsychotic use, characterized by orofacial
dyskinesias. Acute dystonia is early, akathisia is restlessness, and NMS includes rigidity,
fever, and autonomic instability.
Q6.
A charge nurse is assigning care. Which task should be delegated to an unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Administer a rectal enema to an adult B. Perform a sterile wound dressing change
patient
C. Provide oral care to a patient with D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
dysphagia
Page 4
COMPLETE PREPARATION GUIDE
LATEST UPDATE
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
134 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
LPN EXIT EXAM AND ANSWERS COMPLETE PREPARATION GUIDE LATEST UPDATE. It contains 134
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning
required to master the material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 134 Questions
Foundations - Application - LPN EXIT AND Complete Preparation Guide Update Practical Nursing
Undergraduate YEAR 3 LPN EXIT Level
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Receiving Section B - Prescribed
Questions 1 to 34 Questions 35 to 68
Section C - Appropriate Section D - Priority
Questions 69 to 102 Questions 103 to 134
,Section A - Receiving
Q1.
A patient on a nitroglycerin drip for acute coronary syndrome is currently receiving 10
mcg/min. The bag contains 50 mg nitroglycerin in 250 mL D5W. The dose is increased by 5
mcg/min every 5 minutes until relief. What is the infusion rate in mL/hr for a dose of 20
mcg/min?
A. 3 mL/hr B. 6 mL/hr
C. 12 mL/hr D. 15 mL/hr
Correct: B - 6 mL/hr
Rationale:
Concentration = 50 mg/250 mL = 0.2 mg/mL = 200 mcg/mL. Dose 20 mcg/min = 1200
mcg/hr. Rate = = 6 mL/hr. Option A corresponds to 10 mcg/min, C to 40 mcg/min,
D to 50 mcg/min.
Q2.
A patient with sepsis has ABG: pH 7.30, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, HCO3- 16 mEq/L. Which
acid-base disorder is present?
A. Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory B. Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic
compensation compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis with full compensation D. Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
Correct: A - Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
Rationale:
pH <7.35 (acidosis), HCO3- low (metabolic), PaCO2 low (compensatory hyperventilation).
Because pH is still acidic, compensation is partial. Full compensation would normalize pH;
mixed acidosis would have high PaCO2.
Q3.
A laboring patient's fetal heart rate shows a gradual decrease starting at the peak of a
contraction and returning after contraction ends. Variability is minimal. What is the most
likely cause?
A. Head compression B. Cord compression
C. Uteroplacental insufficiency D. Fetal anemia
Correct: C - Uteroplacental insufficiency
Page 3
, Section A - Receiving
Rationale:
Late decelerations (gradual onset after contraction peak) indicate uteroplacental insufficiency.
Early decelerations mirror contractions (head compression). Variable decelerations are abrupt
(cord compression). Sinusoidal pattern indicates fetal anemia.
Q4.
According to Erikson's psychosocial theory, a patient in the stage of industry vs.
inferiority is most likely mastering which Piagetian cognitive skill?
A. Object permanence B. Conservation
C. Abstract reasoning D. Hypothetical-deductive reasoning
Correct: B - Conservation
Rationale:
Industry vs. inferiority corresponds to school age (6-12 years), which aligns with Piaget's
concrete operational stage where conservation is mastered. Object permanence is
sensorimotor (infancy). Abstract and hypothetical-deductive reasoning are formal operational
(adolescence).
Q5.
A patient on long-term haloperidol develops involuntary, repetitive movements of the
tongue, lips, and jaw. Which adverse effect is most likely?
A. Acute dystonia B. Akathisia
C. Tardive dyskinesia D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Correct: C - Tardive dyskinesia
Rationale:
Tardive dyskinesia occurs after prolonged antipsychotic use, characterized by orofacial
dyskinesias. Acute dystonia is early, akathisia is restlessness, and NMS includes rigidity,
fever, and autonomic instability.
Q6.
A charge nurse is assigning care. Which task should be delegated to an unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Administer a rectal enema to an adult B. Perform a sterile wound dressing change
patient
C. Provide oral care to a patient with D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
dysphagia
Page 4
