VIRTUAL ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS
2026 LATEST PROCTORED EXAM
WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
88 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
VIRTUAL ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS 2026 LATEST PROCTORED EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | ACTUAL ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS TESTING VERSION. It contains 88 carefully selected questions
that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct
answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning required to master the
material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 88 Questions
Foundations - Application - Virtual ATI RN Fundamentals 2026 Proctored WITH NGN AND Actual ATI RN
Fundamentals Testing Version RN Fundamentals Undergraduate YEAR 2-3 Pre-licensure Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 22 Control
Questions 23 to 44
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 67 to 88
Questions 45 to 66
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A nurse is assessing a client's risk for falls. Which combination of factors most
significantly increases fall risk in an acute care setting?
A. History of falls, use of antihypertensives, B. Age over 65, urinary incontinence, and
and gait instability poor lighting
C. Postoperative status, opioid analgesia, D. Visual impairment, polypharmacy, and
and unfamiliar environment cluttered room
Correct: C - Postoperative status, opioid analgesia, and unfamiliar environment
Rationale:
Postoperative status, opioid use, and unfamiliar environment synergistically impair cognition,
mobility, and balance, creating a high-risk profile. While other options include risk factors, the
combination of recent surgery, opioids, and new setting is most directly linked to acute fall risk
in hospitalized clients.
Q2.
A client's surgical wound dressing is saturated with serosanguinous drainage. The nurse
observes that the wound edges are approximated with visible exudate. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Reinforce the dressing and document the B. Notify the surgeon and prepare for wound
drainage culture
C. Remove the dressing and apply a D. Apply sterile gauze and secure with
transparent film abdominal binder
Correct: D - Apply sterile gauze and secure with abdominal binder
Rationale:
A saturated dressing requires reinforcement to absorb drainage and protect the wound, but
the correct technique is to apply sterile gauze and secure the outer dressing (abdominal
binder provides pressure and absorption). Reinforcing alone violates sterile technique if the
original dressing is wet. The priority is to maintain a sterile, moist environment while
preventing contamination; notifying the surgeon is secondary unless signs of infection are
present.
Q3.
A nurse is teaching a client about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which
client behavior indicates correct technique?
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
A. Inhaling rapidly after actuation and B. Shaking the inhaler, exhaling fully,
holding breath for 3 seconds actuating once, then inhaling slowly and
holding breath for 10 seconds
C. Actuating the inhaler twice during one D. Placing the spacer in the mouth,
slow inhalation actuating, then inhaling quickly
Correct: B - Shaking the inhaler, exhaling fully, actuating once, then inhaling slowly and
holding breath for 10 seconds
Rationale:
Correct MDI technique includes shaking the canister, exhaling fully, actuating one puff,
inhaling slowly and deeply (over 3-5 seconds), and holding breath for 10 seconds. Option B
matches this sequence. Option A suggests holding breath only 3 seconds (insufficient).
Option C is double actuation without exhalation, and D describes a fast inhalation, reducing
drug deposition.
Q4.
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line has a blood glucose
level of 350 mg/dL. The nurse reviews the TPN prescription and notes the infusion rate is
125 mL/hr of D70W with electrolytes. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Slow the TPN infusion rate to 50 mL/hr B. Administer subcutaneous regular insulin
per sliding scale
C. Check the client's blood glucose level D. Notify the healthcare provider and obtain
using a different meter a new TPN prescription with decreased
dextrose concentration
Correct: B - Administer subcutaneous regular insulin per sliding scale
Rationale:
Hyperglycemia from TPN requires prompt insulin administration as per institutional protocol or
sliding scale. Slowing the infusion can cause hypoglycemia if insulin is not adjusted.
Rechecking with a different meter is unnecessary; the value is consistent with TPN. The
nurse should intervene independently within standing orders; notifying the HCP is appropriate
after addressing immediate glucose elevation.
Q5.
A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client who is obese.
Which modification to the procedure is most appropriate to reduce the risk of infection?
A. Use a larger gauge catheter to ensure B. Apply extra sterile lubricant to the
flow catheter tip
Page 4
2026 LATEST PROCTORED EXAM
WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
88 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
VIRTUAL ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS 2026 LATEST PROCTORED EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | ACTUAL ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS TESTING VERSION. It contains 88 carefully selected questions
that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct
answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying concepts and reasoning required to master the
material.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering questions
under simulated exam
conditions
Review Summary 88 Questions
Foundations - Application - Virtual ATI RN Fundamentals 2026 Proctored WITH NGN AND Actual ATI RN
Fundamentals Testing Version RN Fundamentals Undergraduate YEAR 2-3 Pre-licensure Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Management OF CARE Section B - Safety AND Infection
Questions 1 to 22 Control
Questions 23 to 44
Section C - Health Promotion AND Section D - Psychosocial Integrity
Maintenance Questions 67 to 88
Questions 45 to 66
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A nurse is assessing a client's risk for falls. Which combination of factors most
significantly increases fall risk in an acute care setting?
A. History of falls, use of antihypertensives, B. Age over 65, urinary incontinence, and
and gait instability poor lighting
C. Postoperative status, opioid analgesia, D. Visual impairment, polypharmacy, and
and unfamiliar environment cluttered room
Correct: C - Postoperative status, opioid analgesia, and unfamiliar environment
Rationale:
Postoperative status, opioid use, and unfamiliar environment synergistically impair cognition,
mobility, and balance, creating a high-risk profile. While other options include risk factors, the
combination of recent surgery, opioids, and new setting is most directly linked to acute fall risk
in hospitalized clients.
Q2.
A client's surgical wound dressing is saturated with serosanguinous drainage. The nurse
observes that the wound edges are approximated with visible exudate. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Reinforce the dressing and document the B. Notify the surgeon and prepare for wound
drainage culture
C. Remove the dressing and apply a D. Apply sterile gauze and secure with
transparent film abdominal binder
Correct: D - Apply sterile gauze and secure with abdominal binder
Rationale:
A saturated dressing requires reinforcement to absorb drainage and protect the wound, but
the correct technique is to apply sterile gauze and secure the outer dressing (abdominal
binder provides pressure and absorption). Reinforcing alone violates sterile technique if the
original dressing is wet. The priority is to maintain a sterile, moist environment while
preventing contamination; notifying the surgeon is secondary unless signs of infection are
present.
Q3.
A nurse is teaching a client about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which
client behavior indicates correct technique?
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
A. Inhaling rapidly after actuation and B. Shaking the inhaler, exhaling fully,
holding breath for 3 seconds actuating once, then inhaling slowly and
holding breath for 10 seconds
C. Actuating the inhaler twice during one D. Placing the spacer in the mouth,
slow inhalation actuating, then inhaling quickly
Correct: B - Shaking the inhaler, exhaling fully, actuating once, then inhaling slowly and
holding breath for 10 seconds
Rationale:
Correct MDI technique includes shaking the canister, exhaling fully, actuating one puff,
inhaling slowly and deeply (over 3-5 seconds), and holding breath for 10 seconds. Option B
matches this sequence. Option A suggests holding breath only 3 seconds (insufficient).
Option C is double actuation without exhalation, and D describes a fast inhalation, reducing
drug deposition.
Q4.
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line has a blood glucose
level of 350 mg/dL. The nurse reviews the TPN prescription and notes the infusion rate is
125 mL/hr of D70W with electrolytes. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Slow the TPN infusion rate to 50 mL/hr B. Administer subcutaneous regular insulin
per sliding scale
C. Check the client's blood glucose level D. Notify the healthcare provider and obtain
using a different meter a new TPN prescription with decreased
dextrose concentration
Correct: B - Administer subcutaneous regular insulin per sliding scale
Rationale:
Hyperglycemia from TPN requires prompt insulin administration as per institutional protocol or
sliding scale. Slowing the infusion can cause hypoglycemia if insulin is not adjusted.
Rechecking with a different meter is unnecessary; the value is consistent with TPN. The
nurse should intervene independently within standing orders; notifying the HCP is appropriate
after addressing immediate glucose elevation.
Q5.
A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client who is obese.
Which modification to the procedure is most appropriate to reduce the risk of infection?
A. Use a larger gauge catheter to ensure B. Apply extra sterile lubricant to the
flow catheter tip
Page 4
