WGU D116 EXAM PREP SOLVED
QUESTIONS ACCURATE ANSWERS
PREMIUM REVIEW
◉ A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that
started after having sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about
eight hours ago. He has nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond?
Answer: Do not take the nitroglycerin and call 911
Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in blood
pressure leading to cardiovascular collapse.
◉ A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental
health clinic is discussing the possibility of beginning lithium with
an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN). The patient
expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with treatment. The
APRN explains to the patient that this medication requires specific
lab monitoring and wants to draw baseline labs. The patient asks
why the test is needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient?
,Answer: A baseline blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
(CREA) level needs to be drawn to assess kidney function prior to
treatment.
This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline should
be drawn for future comparison.
◉ An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the
medications that will be commonly experienced with a new nurse to
determine whether the drugs are safe for the patients. The new
nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being prescribed
sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.
Which patient may take this drug safely?
Answer: YES A 54-year-male with a medical history of hypertension,
mild eczema, and previous history of a urolithiasis where all is well
controlled and there are no current complications
◉ A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a
history of anxiety. The advanced practice registered nurse reviews
the mechanism of action by which many neuropharmacological
agents act and decides to prescribe citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Answer: YES Influences receptor activity on target cells
,Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors, and
it targets cells.
◉ A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On
admission, the patient exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty
walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and memory loss. The
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Answer: NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase
Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and
dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of
acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients with
Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the
neurotransmitters acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric acid in the
basal ganglia and extrapyramidal system.
◉ A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic
for an emergency visit with an advanced practice registered nurse
(APRN) following a seizure. Upon interviewing the patient and the
parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is classified by marked
, impairment of consciousness and is followed by a period of central
nervous system (CNS) depression.
Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing?
Answer: Atonic
NO Myoclonic
YES Tonic-clonic
Absence
Incorrect. Myoclonic seizures consist of a sudden muscle contraction
that lasts for just one second.
Correct! A tonic-clonic seizure is a type of seizure that is also called a
convulsion. This type of seizure can include muscle stiffness, loss of
consciousness, and body jerking.
◉ A patient has been taking oral oxycodone every six hours for back
pain during the past three years. The patient suddenly decides to
stop taking the pain medication and is trying an alternative therapy
without a clinician's approval.
Which risk is of clinical concern?
Answer: YES Physical dependence
Correct! The patient suddenly stopping the medication will cause
physical symptoms that can range from nausea to seizures.
◉ An advanced practice registered nurse has diagnosed a 44-year-
old male with depression. A plan is developed to start treatment
QUESTIONS ACCURATE ANSWERS
PREMIUM REVIEW
◉ A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that
started after having sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about
eight hours ago. He has nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond?
Answer: Do not take the nitroglycerin and call 911
Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in blood
pressure leading to cardiovascular collapse.
◉ A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental
health clinic is discussing the possibility of beginning lithium with
an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN). The patient
expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with treatment. The
APRN explains to the patient that this medication requires specific
lab monitoring and wants to draw baseline labs. The patient asks
why the test is needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient?
,Answer: A baseline blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
(CREA) level needs to be drawn to assess kidney function prior to
treatment.
This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline should
be drawn for future comparison.
◉ An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the
medications that will be commonly experienced with a new nurse to
determine whether the drugs are safe for the patients. The new
nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being prescribed
sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.
Which patient may take this drug safely?
Answer: YES A 54-year-male with a medical history of hypertension,
mild eczema, and previous history of a urolithiasis where all is well
controlled and there are no current complications
◉ A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a
history of anxiety. The advanced practice registered nurse reviews
the mechanism of action by which many neuropharmacological
agents act and decides to prescribe citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Answer: YES Influences receptor activity on target cells
,Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors, and
it targets cells.
◉ A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On
admission, the patient exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty
walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and memory loss. The
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Answer: NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase
Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and
dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of
acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients with
Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the
neurotransmitters acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric acid in the
basal ganglia and extrapyramidal system.
◉ A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic
for an emergency visit with an advanced practice registered nurse
(APRN) following a seizure. Upon interviewing the patient and the
parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is classified by marked
, impairment of consciousness and is followed by a period of central
nervous system (CNS) depression.
Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing?
Answer: Atonic
NO Myoclonic
YES Tonic-clonic
Absence
Incorrect. Myoclonic seizures consist of a sudden muscle contraction
that lasts for just one second.
Correct! A tonic-clonic seizure is a type of seizure that is also called a
convulsion. This type of seizure can include muscle stiffness, loss of
consciousness, and body jerking.
◉ A patient has been taking oral oxycodone every six hours for back
pain during the past three years. The patient suddenly decides to
stop taking the pain medication and is trying an alternative therapy
without a clinician's approval.
Which risk is of clinical concern?
Answer: YES Physical dependence
Correct! The patient suddenly stopping the medication will cause
physical symptoms that can range from nausea to seizures.
◉ An advanced practice registered nurse has diagnosed a 44-year-
old male with depression. A plan is developed to start treatment
