2026 HESI RN
PEDIACTRICS V2
3 FULL SET EXAMS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE “SCENARIOS”)
Pass The Exam Score with Confidence
WHAT YOU WILL GET:
➢ Achieving a 900+ on the HESI Exam
➢EACH EXAM SET HAS 55 QUESTIONS
Not affiliated with HESI, ATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,Table of Contents
SET 1 EXAM ..................................................................2
SET 2 EXAM ................................................................32
SET 3 EXAM ................................................................66
SET 1 EXAM
1. The nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin IV to a client after the delivery of
her infant. Which outcome should the nurse expect from the administration of
oxytocin?
A. Return of the uterus to prepregnancy size.
B. Stimulation of uterine contractions.
C. Activation of the let-down reflex.
D. Expulsion of the placenta.
Correct Answer: B. Stimulation of uterine contractions.
Rationale: Oxytocin is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions to prevent
postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine involution and contraction of uterine blood
vessels. While oxytocin does contribute to uterine involution over time (Option A), the
immediate expected outcome is stimulation of uterine contractions. Option C refers to
prolactin and oxytocin's role in breastfeeding let-down reflex, which is not the purpose of
postpartum IV administration. Option D is incorrect because placental expulsion occurs
during the third stage of labor, not after delivery.
,2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the caregiver of an infant with
recurrent otitis media. Which statement made by the caregiver should the nurse
recognize as needing additional education about minimizing subsequent
infections?
A. "I will instill benzocaine otic drops regularly."
B. "I will schedule a visit for the pneumococcal vaccine."
C. "I will give the infant the full course of antibiotics."
D. "I will avoid any smoking inside the house."
Correct Answer: A. "I will instill benzocaine otic drops regularly."
Rationale: Benzocaine otic drops are topical anesthetics used for pain relief during
acute episodes of otitis media; they do not prevent infections and should not be used
regularly. The pneumococcal vaccine (Option B) helps prevent bacterial causes of otitis
media. Completing the full antibiotic course (Option C) ensures eradication of infection.
Avoiding secondhand smoke (Option D) reduces risk factors for recurrent otitis media.
The caregiver needs education that benzocaine drops are for symptomatic relief only,
not prophylaxis.
3. An 8-year-old girl with precocious sexual development is being treated
medically with injections of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) to
regulate the pituitary gland. Which statement by the parents indicates that they
understand the treatment?
A. "We should encourage her to dress in clothing that suits her sexual maturity level."
B. "Sexual maturity differences between my daughter and her peers will disappear
within a few years."
C. "Our daughter will be on this hormone treatment for the rest of her life."
D. "We should be sure to start our daughter on birth control pills."
Correct Answer: B. "Sexual maturity differences between my daughter and her
peers will disappear within a few years."
Rationale: LHRH agonists suppress gonadotropin release, halting premature sexual
development until the appropriate age. Treatment is typically discontinued around age
11-12 when normal puberty should commence, allowing the child to progress through
puberty with peers. Option A is inappropriate as the child should be supported at her
chronological age level. Option C is incorrect because treatment is not lifelong. Option D
is unnecessary as LHRH therapy suppresses fertility temporarily.
, 4. An infant born 2 days ago has not passed a meconium stool and begins to
vomit bilious secretions. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Gather supplies for an IV infusion.
B. Prepare for anorectal surgery.
C. Measure abdominal circumference.
D. Monitor strict urinary output.
Correct Answer: C. Measure abdominal circumference.
Rationale: Bilious vomiting with failure to pass meconium suggests intestinal
obstruction, possibly Hirschsprung disease or intestinal atresia. Measuring abdominal
circumference establishes a baseline for distension assessment and monitors for
progressive obstruction. While IV access (Option A) will be needed, assessment comes
first. Surgical preparation (Option B) is premature without diagnosis. Urinary output
monitoring (Option D) is important but secondary to assessing the gastrointestinal
emergency.
5. A client in preterm labor has had an infusion of magnesium sulfate running for
8 hours. Current assessment findings are respirations of 14 breaths/minute, a
urine output of 25 mL/hr, deep tendon reflexes of 1+, and a serum magnesium
level of 8 mEq/L (4 mmol/L). Based on these assessment findings, which
conclusion should the nurse reach?
A. These findings are within normal limits and require routine follow-up.
B. All findings are outside of the acceptable range and should be reported to the
healthcare provider immediately.
C. The primary IV fluids should be increased to assist in increasing the urinary output.
D. The findings indicate potential toxicity to the magnesium sulfate and close follow-up
is indicated.
Correct Answer: B. All findings are outside of the acceptable range and should be
reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
Rationale: Therapeutic magnesium sulfate levels are 4-7 mEq/L (2-3.5 mmol/L). At 8
mEq/L, the client is in toxic range. Normal parameters require: respirations ≥12 (barely
adequate at 14 but approaching concern), urine output ≥25-30 mL/hr (borderline), and
deep tendon reflexes 2+ (1+ indicates CNS depression). The combination of elevated
PEDIACTRICS V2
3 FULL SET EXAMS
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE “SCENARIOS”)
Pass The Exam Score with Confidence
WHAT YOU WILL GET:
➢ Achieving a 900+ on the HESI Exam
➢EACH EXAM SET HAS 55 QUESTIONS
Not affiliated with HESI, ATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,Table of Contents
SET 1 EXAM ..................................................................2
SET 2 EXAM ................................................................32
SET 3 EXAM ................................................................66
SET 1 EXAM
1. The nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin IV to a client after the delivery of
her infant. Which outcome should the nurse expect from the administration of
oxytocin?
A. Return of the uterus to prepregnancy size.
B. Stimulation of uterine contractions.
C. Activation of the let-down reflex.
D. Expulsion of the placenta.
Correct Answer: B. Stimulation of uterine contractions.
Rationale: Oxytocin is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions to prevent
postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine involution and contraction of uterine blood
vessels. While oxytocin does contribute to uterine involution over time (Option A), the
immediate expected outcome is stimulation of uterine contractions. Option C refers to
prolactin and oxytocin's role in breastfeeding let-down reflex, which is not the purpose of
postpartum IV administration. Option D is incorrect because placental expulsion occurs
during the third stage of labor, not after delivery.
,2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the caregiver of an infant with
recurrent otitis media. Which statement made by the caregiver should the nurse
recognize as needing additional education about minimizing subsequent
infections?
A. "I will instill benzocaine otic drops regularly."
B. "I will schedule a visit for the pneumococcal vaccine."
C. "I will give the infant the full course of antibiotics."
D. "I will avoid any smoking inside the house."
Correct Answer: A. "I will instill benzocaine otic drops regularly."
Rationale: Benzocaine otic drops are topical anesthetics used for pain relief during
acute episodes of otitis media; they do not prevent infections and should not be used
regularly. The pneumococcal vaccine (Option B) helps prevent bacterial causes of otitis
media. Completing the full antibiotic course (Option C) ensures eradication of infection.
Avoiding secondhand smoke (Option D) reduces risk factors for recurrent otitis media.
The caregiver needs education that benzocaine drops are for symptomatic relief only,
not prophylaxis.
3. An 8-year-old girl with precocious sexual development is being treated
medically with injections of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) to
regulate the pituitary gland. Which statement by the parents indicates that they
understand the treatment?
A. "We should encourage her to dress in clothing that suits her sexual maturity level."
B. "Sexual maturity differences between my daughter and her peers will disappear
within a few years."
C. "Our daughter will be on this hormone treatment for the rest of her life."
D. "We should be sure to start our daughter on birth control pills."
Correct Answer: B. "Sexual maturity differences between my daughter and her
peers will disappear within a few years."
Rationale: LHRH agonists suppress gonadotropin release, halting premature sexual
development until the appropriate age. Treatment is typically discontinued around age
11-12 when normal puberty should commence, allowing the child to progress through
puberty with peers. Option A is inappropriate as the child should be supported at her
chronological age level. Option C is incorrect because treatment is not lifelong. Option D
is unnecessary as LHRH therapy suppresses fertility temporarily.
, 4. An infant born 2 days ago has not passed a meconium stool and begins to
vomit bilious secretions. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Gather supplies for an IV infusion.
B. Prepare for anorectal surgery.
C. Measure abdominal circumference.
D. Monitor strict urinary output.
Correct Answer: C. Measure abdominal circumference.
Rationale: Bilious vomiting with failure to pass meconium suggests intestinal
obstruction, possibly Hirschsprung disease or intestinal atresia. Measuring abdominal
circumference establishes a baseline for distension assessment and monitors for
progressive obstruction. While IV access (Option A) will be needed, assessment comes
first. Surgical preparation (Option B) is premature without diagnosis. Urinary output
monitoring (Option D) is important but secondary to assessing the gastrointestinal
emergency.
5. A client in preterm labor has had an infusion of magnesium sulfate running for
8 hours. Current assessment findings are respirations of 14 breaths/minute, a
urine output of 25 mL/hr, deep tendon reflexes of 1+, and a serum magnesium
level of 8 mEq/L (4 mmol/L). Based on these assessment findings, which
conclusion should the nurse reach?
A. These findings are within normal limits and require routine follow-up.
B. All findings are outside of the acceptable range and should be reported to the
healthcare provider immediately.
C. The primary IV fluids should be increased to assist in increasing the urinary output.
D. The findings indicate potential toxicity to the magnesium sulfate and close follow-up
is indicated.
Correct Answer: B. All findings are outside of the acceptable range and should be
reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
Rationale: Therapeutic magnesium sulfate levels are 4-7 mEq/L (2-3.5 mmol/L). At 8
mEq/L, the client is in toxic range. Normal parameters require: respirations ≥12 (barely
adequate at 14 but approaching concern), urine output ≥25-30 mL/hr (borderline), and
deep tendon reflexes 2+ (1+ indicates CNS depression). The combination of elevated
