Questions with Answers & Explanations (NBOME COMLEX
Level 2-CE Prep) Digital download (PDF) Instant
access after purchase Printable for offline study
Ace the COMSAE Phase 2 Form 118 & COMLEX Level 2-CE – Guaranteed!
Are you preparing for the COMSAE Phase 2 Form 118 (BSA 118) exam? Feeling the pressure of needing
a strong score to meet your school's graduation requirements or to assess your readiness for
the COMLEX-USA Level 2-CE—especially now that your Level 2-CE score carries even more weight for
residency applications?
Form 118 is one of the NBOME's secure-browser (videos) practice assessments designed to mirror
the updated 160-question format of the real exam, testing the clinical knowledge and reasoning you'll
need for supervised practice. This comprehensive 200-question practice exam is your ultimate study
tool—featuring board-style questions, verified correct answers, and detailed rationales that explain not
just the right answer, but the clinical reasoning behind it. Designed to match the NBOME COMLEX-USA
Blueprint format, difficulty, and content distribution, this document will give you the confidence you need to
pass on your very first attempt.
📌 What's Inside:
✅ 200 realistic, single-best-answer multiple-choice questions covering every core clinical discipline,
as outlined by the NBOME's 10 Clinical Presentations and 7 Competency Domains:
o Emergency Medicine – ACS, anaphylaxis, trauma, toxicology, cardiac tamponade, acute mesenteric
ischemia
o Family Medicine – preventive care, chronic disease management, community health, health promotion
o Internal Medicine – cardiology, pulmonology, gastroenterology, endocrinology, nephrology, rheumatology,
infectious disease
o Obstetrics & Gynecology – pregnancy complications, menstrual disorders, breast disease, preeclampsia,
ectopic pregnancy
o Pediatrics – developmental milestones, congenital conditions, childhood infections, pediatric emergencies
o Psychiatry – mood disorders, psychosis, substance use, anxiety, dementia
,o Surgery – pre-operative evaluation, post-operative care, surgical complications, trauma
o Osteopathic Principles and Practice (OPP/OMM) – OMT clinical applications, somatic dysfunction,
Fryette's principles, HVLA, muscle energy, and osteopathic philosophy in patient care
✅ Every correct answer in bold italics – no second-guessing
✅ Detailed explanations for every question – learn the why behind the answer, not just the letter,
reinforcing diagnostic reasoning and evidence-based management
✅ High-yield clinical content – focused on diagnosis, management, health promotion, and disease
prevention—exactly what COMLEX Level 2-CE emphasizes
📄 Format:
Digital download (PDF)
Instant access after purchase
Printable for offline study
Compatible with mobile, tablet, and desktop
Table of Contents:
Section 1: Emergency Medicine & Critical Care (Questions 1–20)
Section 2: Internal Medicine – Cardiology, Pulmonology, & Hematology (Questions 21–50)
Section 3: Obstetrics & Gynecology (Questions 51–70)
Section 4: Pediatrics (Questions 71–90)
Section 5: Psychiatry (Questions 91–100)
Section 6: Surgery, Infectious Disease, & Dermatology (Questions 101–120)
Section 7: Osteopathic Principles & OMM (Questions 121–140)
Section 8: Mixed Clinical Presentations & Health Promotion (Questions 141–200)
Section 1: Emergency Medicine & Critical Care (Questions 1-20)
1. A 62-year-old man presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to
his left arm for 45 minutes. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.
,Which artery is most likely occluded?
A. Left anterior descending artery
B. Right coronary artery
C. Left circumflex artery
D. Posterior descending artery
Answer: B. Right coronary artery
Explanation: ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior myocardial
infarction, most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery. The
RCA supplies the inferior wall of the heart, and inferior MIs are often associated
with bradycardia and hypotension due to vagal stimulation.
2. A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe headache,
photophobia, and nuchal rigidity. Lumbar puncture shows xanthochromia. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Migraine with aura
D. Intracranial abscess
, Answer: B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Explanation: The classic triad of sudden severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and
photophobia suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage. Xanthochromia on lumbar
puncture confirms the presence of blood breakdown products, which is diagnostic
for SAH.
3. A patient develops anaphylaxis after receiving IV penicillin. Which medication
is the first-line treatment?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Epinephrine
C. Albuterol
D. Prednisone
Answer: B. Epinephrine
Explanation: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis because it
rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and mucosal edema. It works
through alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction and beta-adrenergic bronchodilation,
making it the only agent that addresses all life-threatening manifestations.