Women's Health APEA Final Exam Prep (2026) - Complete
Questions and Verified Answers Study Material - 182 Questions
and Answers Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And
Verified
Subject Area Women's Health
Description Comprehensive exam covering advanced women's health topics including
contraception, gynecologic oncology, pregnancy complications, menopause
management, and screening guidelines. Designed to test clinical reasoning and
application of evidence-based practice for nurse practitioners.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 182
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Apply current CDC and USPSTF screening recommendations for women's
health.
2. Differentiate between benign and malignant gynecologic conditions using
diagnostic criteria.
3. Select appropriate contraceptive methods based on individual risk factors and
MEC categories.
4. Interpret laboratory and imaging findings in the context of women's health
disorders.
5. Integrate evidence-based guidelines into the management of menopause and
pelvic floor disorders.
Page 1
,Accreditation Meets standards for APEA FNP/WHNP certification exam preparation and
continuing education credits.
Page 2
,1. A 25-year-old woman with a history of migraine with aura and a 15-year
smoking history requests combined oral contraceptives. Which of the following
best describes the appropriate clinical decision?
A. COCs are contraindicated due to migraine with aura, regardless of smoking.
B. COCs are contraindicated due to smoking and age >35, but not migraine with aura.
C. COCs are safe if she uses a low-dose pill and quits smoking.
D. COCs are safe with migraine without aura, but not with aura.
Answer: A. COCs are contraindicated due to migraine with aura, regardless
of smoking.
Migraine with aura is a category 4 (contraindication) for COCs due to increased
stroke risk, independent of smoking. Smoking alone is category 3 for women <35,
but with aura it is absolute contraindication.
2. A 40-year-old woman presents with a Pap result showing atypical glandular
cells, not otherwise specified (AGC-NOS). HPV testing was negative. What is
the next best step?
A. Repeat Pap in 1 year.
B. Colposcopy with endocervical sampling.
C. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP).
D. Endometrial biopsy alone.
Answer: B. Colposcopy with endocervical sampling.
ASCCP guidelines recommend colposcopy with endocervical sampling for AGC
regardless of HPV result. Endometrial sampling is also recommended for women
aged 35 or with bleeding, but colposcopy is the initial step.
Page 3
, 3. In first-trimester combined screening for preeclampsia, which biomarker
measurement provides the highest predictive value when added to maternal
risk factors?
A. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
B. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)
C. Placental growth factor (PlGF)
D. Soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase-1 (sFlt-1)
Answer: C. Placental growth factor (PlGF)
PlGF is low in early preeclampsia; combined with risk factors, it achieves the
highest detection rate in first trimester. PAPP-A is also used but less predictive.
sFlt-1 is more relevant in second trimester.
4. A 55-year-old woman with a history of hormone receptor-positive breast
cancer currently on an aromatase inhibitor reports severe dyspareunia. Which
treatment is contraindicated?
A. Vaginal lubricants with moisturizers
B. Ospemifene 60 mg daily
C. Low-dose vaginal estrogen tablet
D. Pelvic floor physical therapy
Answer: B. Ospemifene 60 mg daily
Ospemifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator with estrogenic effects and
carries a boxed warning against use in women with current or prior breast
cancer. Vaginal estrogen is controversial but not absolutely contraindicated in all
guidelines; lubricants and PT are safe.
Page 4
Questions and Verified Answers Study Material - 182 Questions
and Answers Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And
Verified
Subject Area Women's Health
Description Comprehensive exam covering advanced women's health topics including
contraception, gynecologic oncology, pregnancy complications, menopause
management, and screening guidelines. Designed to test clinical reasoning and
application of evidence-based practice for nurse practitioners.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 182
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Apply current CDC and USPSTF screening recommendations for women's
health.
2. Differentiate between benign and malignant gynecologic conditions using
diagnostic criteria.
3. Select appropriate contraceptive methods based on individual risk factors and
MEC categories.
4. Interpret laboratory and imaging findings in the context of women's health
disorders.
5. Integrate evidence-based guidelines into the management of menopause and
pelvic floor disorders.
Page 1
,Accreditation Meets standards for APEA FNP/WHNP certification exam preparation and
continuing education credits.
Page 2
,1. A 25-year-old woman with a history of migraine with aura and a 15-year
smoking history requests combined oral contraceptives. Which of the following
best describes the appropriate clinical decision?
A. COCs are contraindicated due to migraine with aura, regardless of smoking.
B. COCs are contraindicated due to smoking and age >35, but not migraine with aura.
C. COCs are safe if she uses a low-dose pill and quits smoking.
D. COCs are safe with migraine without aura, but not with aura.
Answer: A. COCs are contraindicated due to migraine with aura, regardless
of smoking.
Migraine with aura is a category 4 (contraindication) for COCs due to increased
stroke risk, independent of smoking. Smoking alone is category 3 for women <35,
but with aura it is absolute contraindication.
2. A 40-year-old woman presents with a Pap result showing atypical glandular
cells, not otherwise specified (AGC-NOS). HPV testing was negative. What is
the next best step?
A. Repeat Pap in 1 year.
B. Colposcopy with endocervical sampling.
C. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP).
D. Endometrial biopsy alone.
Answer: B. Colposcopy with endocervical sampling.
ASCCP guidelines recommend colposcopy with endocervical sampling for AGC
regardless of HPV result. Endometrial sampling is also recommended for women
aged 35 or with bleeding, but colposcopy is the initial step.
Page 3
, 3. In first-trimester combined screening for preeclampsia, which biomarker
measurement provides the highest predictive value when added to maternal
risk factors?
A. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
B. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)
C. Placental growth factor (PlGF)
D. Soluble fms-like tyrosine kinase-1 (sFlt-1)
Answer: C. Placental growth factor (PlGF)
PlGF is low in early preeclampsia; combined with risk factors, it achieves the
highest detection rate in first trimester. PAPP-A is also used but less predictive.
sFlt-1 is more relevant in second trimester.
4. A 55-year-old woman with a history of hormone receptor-positive breast
cancer currently on an aromatase inhibitor reports severe dyspareunia. Which
treatment is contraindicated?
A. Vaginal lubricants with moisturizers
B. Ospemifene 60 mg daily
C. Low-dose vaginal estrogen tablet
D. Pelvic floor physical therapy
Answer: B. Ospemifene 60 mg daily
Ospemifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator with estrogenic effects and
carries a boxed warning against use in women with current or prior breast
cancer. Vaginal estrogen is controversial but not absolutely contraindicated in all
guidelines; lubricants and PT are safe.
Page 4
