EXAMINATION – PRACTICE QUESTIONS
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW FOR
2026/2027 ACADEMIC YEAR
SECTION 1: PERIOPERATIVE NURSING (Questions 1–25)
1. A client is scheduled for surgery under general anesthesia. Which of the
following is the priority preoperative assessment?
A) Assess the client's surgical history
B) Assess the client's food preferences
C) Assess the client's education level
D) Assess the client's airway, breathing, and cardiovascular status
Rationale: Airway, breathing, and cardiovascular status are the priority
assessments before surgery to identify risks and ensure safe anesthesia
administration.
2. A client is NPO before surgery. The primary reason for this is to:
A) Prevent dehydration
B) Prevent constipation
C) Prevent aspiration during anesthesia
,D) Reduce the risk of infection
Rationale: NPO status prevents aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs
during anesthesia induction and surgery.
3. A client reports having an allergy to latex. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A) Continue with standard care
B) Flag the chart and ensure latexfree supplies are used
C) Give the client antihistamines
D) Cancel the surgery
Rationale: Latex allergy requires immediate identification and use of latexfree
supplies to prevent anaphylaxis.
4. Which of the following is a sign of malignant hyperthermia during surgery?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Rapid rise in body temperature and muscle rigidity
C) Increased urine output
D) Hypotension
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is a lifethreatening reaction to anesthesia
characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and tachycardia.
5. A client is in the PACU (PostAnesthesia Care Unit) and is shivering. The
nurse should:
A) Apply a cooling blanket
,B) Provide warm blankets and monitor temperature
C) Administer cold IV fluids
D) Leave the client uncovered
Rationale: Shivering indicates hypothermia from anesthesia; warm blankets
help rewarm the client.
6. Which of the following is a complication of prolonged immobility during
surgery?
A) Increased appetite
B) Venous thromboembolism (VTE)
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Improved circulation
Rationale: Prolonged immobility increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis
(DVT) and pulmonary embolism.
7. A client is at risk for venous thromboembolism postoperatively. Which
intervention is appropriate?
A) Bed rest only
B) Sequential compression devices (SCDs) and early mobilization
C) Increased fluid restriction
D) Tight bandaging of extremities
Rationale: SCDs and early mobilization promote venous return and reduce
VTE risk.
, 8. Which of the following is a sign of a postoperative wound infection?
A) Serous drainage
B) Redness, warmth, swelling, and purulent drainage
C) Healing edges
D) Absence of pain
Rationale: Infection signs include erythema, heat, edema, pain, and purulent
discharge.
9. The nurse is assessing a postoperative client and notes wound edges
separated with protrusion of internal organs. This is called:
A) Hematoma
B) Seroma
C) Evisceration
D) Dehiscence
Rationale: Evisceration is the protrusion of internal organs through a
separated wound; requires immediate intervention.
10. A client develops a fever on postoperative day 3. The nurse should first:
A) Administer antipyretics
B) Assess for signs of infection or atelectasis
C) Increase room temperature
D) Notify the physician