HIT 203 OB, MEDICAL & SURGICAL-RELATED
QUIZ WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
SECTION 1: OBSTETRICS (Antepartum, Delivery, Postpartum, and Fetal
Conditions) – Questions 1–80
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1. A 32-year-old patient is admitted at 34 weeks gestation with mild pre-
eclampsia without severe features. She has no prior history of hypertension.
What is the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis code?
A) O14.93 – Unspecified pre-eclampsia, third trimester
B) O14.90 – Unspecified pre-eclampsia, unspecified trimester
C) O14.0 – Mild to moderate pre-eclampsia
D) O16.9 – Unspecified maternal hypertension
Correct Answer: C – O14.0 (Mild to moderate pre-eclampsia). Rationale: ICD-
10-CM classifies pre-eclampsia by severity. O14.0 is used for mild to moderate
pre-eclampsia. O14.9 is unspecified severity. The trimester is not coded
separately in this category; the code captures the condition.
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,2. A patient with chronic essential hypertension (pre-existing) becomes
pregnant. She is at 30 weeks and has superimposed pre-eclampsia with severe
features. What is the primary diagnosis?
A) O10.02 – Pre-existing essential hypertension complicating pregnancy,
second trimester
B) O11.9 – Pre-existing hypertension with superimposed pre-eclampsia
C) O14.2 – HELLP syndrome
D) O10.03 – Pre-existing essential hypertension complicating pregnancy, third
trimester
Correct Answer: B – O11.9. Rationale: O11 is specifically for pre-existing
hypertension with superimposed pre-eclampsia. The code does not require
trimester specification. O10 is for pre-existing hypertension without
superimposed pre-eclampsia.
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3. A patient is admitted for a scheduled repeat cesarean delivery at 39 weeks.
She has a history of two prior cesareans. What is the principal diagnosis?
A) O34.21 – Maternal care for scar from previous cesarean delivery
B) O82.0 – Delivery by elective cesarean section
C) O75.9 – Complication of labor and delivery, unspecified
D) Z38.00 – Single liveborn infant, born in hospital
Correct Answer: A – O34.21. Rationale: When a patient is admitted for a
planned cesarean due to a prior uterine scar, the maternal condition (scar) is
the principal diagnosis. O82.0 is used as a procedure code or secondary
diagnosis for elective C-section, but the medical necessity is the scar.
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,4. A patient delivers vaginally at 40 weeks. During the delivery, an episiotomy
is performed and repaired. The delivery is otherwise uncomplicated. What is
the primary diagnosis?
A) O70.0 – First-degree perineal laceration during delivery
B) O80 – Encounter for full-term uncomplicated delivery
C) O70.9 – Perineal laceration during delivery, unspecified
D) O34.3 – Maternal care for cervical incompetence
Correct Answer: B – O80. Rationale: O80 is used for full-term uncomplicated
delivery. An episiotomy is considered a routine part of an uncomplicated
delivery and does not preclude the use of O80, provided no other
complications are documented.
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5. A patient at 32 weeks is admitted for preterm premature rupture of
membranes (PPROM). She is not in labor. What is the appropriate ICD-10-CM
code?
A) O42.00 – Premature rupture of membranes, onset of labor within 24 hours
of rupture, unspecified
B) O42.10 – Premature rupture of membranes, onset of labor after 24 hours of
rupture
C) O42.90 – Premature rupture of membranes, unspecified as to length of time
between rupture and onset of labor
D) O41.10 – Infection of amniotic sac and membranes, unspecified
Correct Answer: C – O42.90. Rationale: Since she is not in labor and the time
between rupture and onset is not specified, O42.90 is the correct code. O42.00
requires labor within 24 hours, and O42.10 requires after 24 hours.
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6. Which of the following is a root operation in ICD-10-PCS that is specifically
used for a cesarean delivery?
A) Extraction
B) Delivery
C) Resection
D) Incision
Correct Answer: A – Extraction. Rationale: In ICD-10-PCS, the root operation
"Extraction" is defined as pulling or stripping out a part by force. Cesarean
delivery is coded as Extraction of the products of conception. There is no root
operation "Delivery" in PCS.
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7. A patient is admitted for a therapeutic abortion at 14 weeks gestation. The
procedure is a dilation and evacuation (D&E). What is the ICD-10-PCS root
operation?
A) Abortion
B) Extraction
C) Resection
D) Excision
Correct Answer: B – Extraction. Rationale: Similar to cesarean, the removal of
products of conception from the uterus is coded as Extraction. The root
operation "Abortion" does not exist in ICD-10-PCS.
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QUIZ WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
SECTION 1: OBSTETRICS (Antepartum, Delivery, Postpartum, and Fetal
Conditions) – Questions 1–80
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1. A 32-year-old patient is admitted at 34 weeks gestation with mild pre-
eclampsia without severe features. She has no prior history of hypertension.
What is the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis code?
A) O14.93 – Unspecified pre-eclampsia, third trimester
B) O14.90 – Unspecified pre-eclampsia, unspecified trimester
C) O14.0 – Mild to moderate pre-eclampsia
D) O16.9 – Unspecified maternal hypertension
Correct Answer: C – O14.0 (Mild to moderate pre-eclampsia). Rationale: ICD-
10-CM classifies pre-eclampsia by severity. O14.0 is used for mild to moderate
pre-eclampsia. O14.9 is unspecified severity. The trimester is not coded
separately in this category; the code captures the condition.
---
,2. A patient with chronic essential hypertension (pre-existing) becomes
pregnant. She is at 30 weeks and has superimposed pre-eclampsia with severe
features. What is the primary diagnosis?
A) O10.02 – Pre-existing essential hypertension complicating pregnancy,
second trimester
B) O11.9 – Pre-existing hypertension with superimposed pre-eclampsia
C) O14.2 – HELLP syndrome
D) O10.03 – Pre-existing essential hypertension complicating pregnancy, third
trimester
Correct Answer: B – O11.9. Rationale: O11 is specifically for pre-existing
hypertension with superimposed pre-eclampsia. The code does not require
trimester specification. O10 is for pre-existing hypertension without
superimposed pre-eclampsia.
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3. A patient is admitted for a scheduled repeat cesarean delivery at 39 weeks.
She has a history of two prior cesareans. What is the principal diagnosis?
A) O34.21 – Maternal care for scar from previous cesarean delivery
B) O82.0 – Delivery by elective cesarean section
C) O75.9 – Complication of labor and delivery, unspecified
D) Z38.00 – Single liveborn infant, born in hospital
Correct Answer: A – O34.21. Rationale: When a patient is admitted for a
planned cesarean due to a prior uterine scar, the maternal condition (scar) is
the principal diagnosis. O82.0 is used as a procedure code or secondary
diagnosis for elective C-section, but the medical necessity is the scar.
---
,4. A patient delivers vaginally at 40 weeks. During the delivery, an episiotomy
is performed and repaired. The delivery is otherwise uncomplicated. What is
the primary diagnosis?
A) O70.0 – First-degree perineal laceration during delivery
B) O80 – Encounter for full-term uncomplicated delivery
C) O70.9 – Perineal laceration during delivery, unspecified
D) O34.3 – Maternal care for cervical incompetence
Correct Answer: B – O80. Rationale: O80 is used for full-term uncomplicated
delivery. An episiotomy is considered a routine part of an uncomplicated
delivery and does not preclude the use of O80, provided no other
complications are documented.
---
5. A patient at 32 weeks is admitted for preterm premature rupture of
membranes (PPROM). She is not in labor. What is the appropriate ICD-10-CM
code?
A) O42.00 – Premature rupture of membranes, onset of labor within 24 hours
of rupture, unspecified
B) O42.10 – Premature rupture of membranes, onset of labor after 24 hours of
rupture
C) O42.90 – Premature rupture of membranes, unspecified as to length of time
between rupture and onset of labor
D) O41.10 – Infection of amniotic sac and membranes, unspecified
Correct Answer: C – O42.90. Rationale: Since she is not in labor and the time
between rupture and onset is not specified, O42.90 is the correct code. O42.00
requires labor within 24 hours, and O42.10 requires after 24 hours.
, ---
6. Which of the following is a root operation in ICD-10-PCS that is specifically
used for a cesarean delivery?
A) Extraction
B) Delivery
C) Resection
D) Incision
Correct Answer: A – Extraction. Rationale: In ICD-10-PCS, the root operation
"Extraction" is defined as pulling or stripping out a part by force. Cesarean
delivery is coded as Extraction of the products of conception. There is no root
operation "Delivery" in PCS.
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7. A patient is admitted for a therapeutic abortion at 14 weeks gestation. The
procedure is a dilation and evacuation (D&E). What is the ICD-10-PCS root
operation?
A) Abortion
B) Extraction
C) Resection
D) Excision
Correct Answer: B – Extraction. Rationale: Similar to cesarean, the removal of
products of conception from the uterus is coded as Extraction. The root
operation "Abortion" does not exist in ICD-10-PCS.
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