VATI GREEN LIGHT PREDICTOR QBANK 2026
| Complete Practice Questions, Verified
Answers & NCLEX Readiness Study Guide
VATI GREEN LIGHT PREDICTOR QBANK 2026 | Complete Practice Questions,
Verified Answers & NCLEX Readiness Study Guide
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
• Comprehensive NCLEX Preparation Tool – This qbank provides 200 practice
questions designed to assess your readiness for the NCLEX-RN examination with
verified answers and detailed clinical rationales for each question to reinforce
critical thinking and concept mastery.
• How to Study Effectively – Work through questions systematically, review
incorrect answers thoroughly to understand the rationale, identify knowledge gaps
by topic area, and retake weak sections multiple times to build confidence and
ensure retention before exam day.
QUESTIONS BEGIN
1. A 62-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
presents to the clinic short of breath. The nurse anticipates which arterial
blood gas (ABG) finding?
A) pH 7.35, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L
B) pH 7.45, PaCO2 35 mmHg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L
C) pH 7.30, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3- 18 mEq/L
D) pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L
E) pH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3- 28 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: A) pH 7.35, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L
Rationale: In COPD, clients develop chronic respiratory acidosis due to air trapping
and decreased ability to eliminate carbon dioxide. The elevated PaCO2 (normal 35-
,45 mmHg) reflects hypoventilation. The pH is below 7.35 (acidosis), and the HCO3-
may be elevated as the kidneys compensate chronically. This is a primary
respiratory problem with metabolic compensation.
2. A 28-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with severe
headache, visual disturbances, and a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A) Administer methyldopa PO and monitor BP every 4 hours
B) Place on strict bed rest, obtain labs including liver enzymes and platelets, and
administer IV magnesium sulfate
C) Encourage the client to ambulate and perform stress-relief techniques
D) Discharge home with follow-up in 2 weeks for BP monitoring
E) Administer labetalol IV push followed by oral antihypertensive therapy only
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Place on strict bed rest, obtain labs including liver
enzymes and platelets, and administer IV magnesium sulfate
Rationale: This client exhibits signs of preeclampsia with severe features (BP
≥160/110, severe headache, visual changes). Magnesium sulfate is the first-line
intervention for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia. Laboratory evaluation
is essential to assess for HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low
platelets). Bed rest reduces stress on the cardiovascular system. This is a high-risk
situation requiring immediate hospitalization and intensive monitoring.
3. A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with suspected
epiglottitis. Which nursing action is CONTRAINDICATED?
A) Prepare emergency equipment including tracheostomy tray at the bedside
B) Avoid placing the child flat and allow assumption of tripod position
C) Perform direct visualization of the throat with a tongue depressor
D) Keep the child NPO and establish IV access cautiously
,E) Arrange for immediate physician/anesthesiologist evaluation
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Perform direct visualization of the throat with a tongue
depressor
Rationale: Direct visualization of the throat with a tongue depressor is
contraindicated in suspected epiglottitis as it may cause complete airway
obstruction and cardiopulmonary arrest. Epiglottitis is a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate specialist evaluation. The child should remain upright (tripod
position), maintain NPO status, and have emergency airway equipment readily
available. Diagnosis is confirmed by lateral neck X-ray, not direct visualization.
4. A 45-year-old client receives a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The
nurse is providing education about metformin. Which statement by the client
indicates correct understanding?
A) "I will take this medication only when my blood sugar is high"
B) "Metformin works by increasing insulin secretion from my pancreas"
C) "This medication decreases glucose production by the liver and increases insulin
sensitivity"
D) "I should stop taking metformin when my blood sugar normalizes"
E) "Metformin causes weight gain, so I should expect to gain 15-20 pounds"
CORRECT ANSWER: C) "This medication decreases glucose production by the
liver and increases insulin sensitivity"
Rationale: Metformin is a first-line agent for type 2 diabetes that works primarily by
decreasing hepatic glucose production (gluconeogenesis) and improving peripheral
insulin sensitivity. It does NOT increase insulin secretion. Metformin is a
maintenance medication taken regularly, not PRN. It typically results in weight loss
or neutral weight change, not weight gain. Regular administration is essential for
glycemic control.
, 5. A 70-year-old male client with a history of myocardial infarction is
prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Hyperkalemia and persistent dry cough
B) Hypercalcemia and bone pain
C) Hyponatremia and fluid overload
D) Hyperglycemia and polydipsia
E) Hypertension and tachycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: A) Hyperkalemia and persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril inhibit angiotensin II production, which leads
to decreased aldosterone secretion. This results in potassium retention, increasing
the risk of hyperkalemia. A persistent dry cough occurs in 5-10% of clients due to
accumulation of bradykinin. Potassium levels and renal function should be
monitored regularly. Clients should be educated to report persistent cough and
avoid potassium supplements.
6. A client with severe burns covering 40% of total body surface area is
admitted to the intensive care unit. During the acute phase, which fluid
replacement strategy should guide treatment?
A) Administer 1 liter of normal saline per 10% of body surface area burned
B) Use the Parkland formula: 4 mL × body weight in kg × % BSA burned; give 50% in
first 8 hours and 50% in next 16 hours
C) Infuse hypertonic saline (3%) to all burn clients regardless of burn depth
D) Administer only maintenance fluids plus 500 mL per hour until urine output
increases
E) Use colloids exclusively to minimize fluid overload
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Use the Parkland formula: 4 mL × body weight in kg × %
BSA burned; give 50% in first 8 hours and 50% in next 16 hours
| Complete Practice Questions, Verified
Answers & NCLEX Readiness Study Guide
VATI GREEN LIGHT PREDICTOR QBANK 2026 | Complete Practice Questions,
Verified Answers & NCLEX Readiness Study Guide
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
• Comprehensive NCLEX Preparation Tool – This qbank provides 200 practice
questions designed to assess your readiness for the NCLEX-RN examination with
verified answers and detailed clinical rationales for each question to reinforce
critical thinking and concept mastery.
• How to Study Effectively – Work through questions systematically, review
incorrect answers thoroughly to understand the rationale, identify knowledge gaps
by topic area, and retake weak sections multiple times to build confidence and
ensure retention before exam day.
QUESTIONS BEGIN
1. A 62-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
presents to the clinic short of breath. The nurse anticipates which arterial
blood gas (ABG) finding?
A) pH 7.35, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L
B) pH 7.45, PaCO2 35 mmHg, HCO3- 26 mEq/L
C) pH 7.30, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3- 18 mEq/L
D) pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L
E) pH 7.50, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3- 28 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: A) pH 7.35, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L
Rationale: In COPD, clients develop chronic respiratory acidosis due to air trapping
and decreased ability to eliminate carbon dioxide. The elevated PaCO2 (normal 35-
,45 mmHg) reflects hypoventilation. The pH is below 7.35 (acidosis), and the HCO3-
may be elevated as the kidneys compensate chronically. This is a primary
respiratory problem with metabolic compensation.
2. A 28-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with severe
headache, visual disturbances, and a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A) Administer methyldopa PO and monitor BP every 4 hours
B) Place on strict bed rest, obtain labs including liver enzymes and platelets, and
administer IV magnesium sulfate
C) Encourage the client to ambulate and perform stress-relief techniques
D) Discharge home with follow-up in 2 weeks for BP monitoring
E) Administer labetalol IV push followed by oral antihypertensive therapy only
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Place on strict bed rest, obtain labs including liver
enzymes and platelets, and administer IV magnesium sulfate
Rationale: This client exhibits signs of preeclampsia with severe features (BP
≥160/110, severe headache, visual changes). Magnesium sulfate is the first-line
intervention for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia. Laboratory evaluation
is essential to assess for HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low
platelets). Bed rest reduces stress on the cardiovascular system. This is a high-risk
situation requiring immediate hospitalization and intensive monitoring.
3. A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with suspected
epiglottitis. Which nursing action is CONTRAINDICATED?
A) Prepare emergency equipment including tracheostomy tray at the bedside
B) Avoid placing the child flat and allow assumption of tripod position
C) Perform direct visualization of the throat with a tongue depressor
D) Keep the child NPO and establish IV access cautiously
,E) Arrange for immediate physician/anesthesiologist evaluation
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Perform direct visualization of the throat with a tongue
depressor
Rationale: Direct visualization of the throat with a tongue depressor is
contraindicated in suspected epiglottitis as it may cause complete airway
obstruction and cardiopulmonary arrest. Epiglottitis is a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate specialist evaluation. The child should remain upright (tripod
position), maintain NPO status, and have emergency airway equipment readily
available. Diagnosis is confirmed by lateral neck X-ray, not direct visualization.
4. A 45-year-old client receives a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The
nurse is providing education about metformin. Which statement by the client
indicates correct understanding?
A) "I will take this medication only when my blood sugar is high"
B) "Metformin works by increasing insulin secretion from my pancreas"
C) "This medication decreases glucose production by the liver and increases insulin
sensitivity"
D) "I should stop taking metformin when my blood sugar normalizes"
E) "Metformin causes weight gain, so I should expect to gain 15-20 pounds"
CORRECT ANSWER: C) "This medication decreases glucose production by the
liver and increases insulin sensitivity"
Rationale: Metformin is a first-line agent for type 2 diabetes that works primarily by
decreasing hepatic glucose production (gluconeogenesis) and improving peripheral
insulin sensitivity. It does NOT increase insulin secretion. Metformin is a
maintenance medication taken regularly, not PRN. It typically results in weight loss
or neutral weight change, not weight gain. Regular administration is essential for
glycemic control.
, 5. A 70-year-old male client with a history of myocardial infarction is
prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Hyperkalemia and persistent dry cough
B) Hypercalcemia and bone pain
C) Hyponatremia and fluid overload
D) Hyperglycemia and polydipsia
E) Hypertension and tachycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: A) Hyperkalemia and persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril inhibit angiotensin II production, which leads
to decreased aldosterone secretion. This results in potassium retention, increasing
the risk of hyperkalemia. A persistent dry cough occurs in 5-10% of clients due to
accumulation of bradykinin. Potassium levels and renal function should be
monitored regularly. Clients should be educated to report persistent cough and
avoid potassium supplements.
6. A client with severe burns covering 40% of total body surface area is
admitted to the intensive care unit. During the acute phase, which fluid
replacement strategy should guide treatment?
A) Administer 1 liter of normal saline per 10% of body surface area burned
B) Use the Parkland formula: 4 mL × body weight in kg × % BSA burned; give 50% in
first 8 hours and 50% in next 16 hours
C) Infuse hypertonic saline (3%) to all burn clients regardless of burn depth
D) Administer only maintenance fluids plus 500 mL per hour until urine output
increases
E) Use colloids exclusively to minimize fluid overload
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Use the Parkland formula: 4 mL × body weight in kg × %
BSA burned; give 50% in first 8 hours and 50% in next 16 hours
